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Uttrakhand-2011
UTTRAKHAND (JUDICIAL BRANCH) PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION, 2011
PART-I
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Who is the Secretary General of United Nations?
(a) Ban ki moon (b) Kofi Annan
(c) Bantros Ghali (d) None of the above
2. In which city of japan radiation leakage occurred due to massive earthquake ?
(a) Tokyo (b) Fukushima
(c) Yakohama (d) Osaka
3. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting committee of the Constitution of India ?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Radha Krishnan (d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. How many States are permanent members of United Nations' Security Council ?
(a) 10 (b) 7
(c) 5 (d) 12
5. Who said : "International law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence" ?
(a) Austin (b) Holland
(c) Oppenheim (d) Sir Henry Maine
6. In Which year Indian Parliament passed Mahatma Gandhi national Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(a) 2009 (b) 2005
(c) 2008 (d) 2006
7. After how many years India won Cricket World Cup in 2011 ?
(a) After 20 years (b) After 25 years
(c) After 28 years (d) After 30 years
8. In which year Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act was enacted by parliament of India ?
(a) 2009 (b) 2005
(c) 2008 (d) 2007
9. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy is borrowed from
(a) Germany (b) France
(c) Ireland (d) U.S.A.
10. Which Amendment added Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of india ?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment
(c) 47th Amendment (d) 49th Amendment
11. The Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is
(a) President of India (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President (d) None of the above
12. Stockholm Conference on 'Human Environment' was held in the year
(a) 1973 (b) 1972
(c) 1992 (d) 1942
13. In India 'Law Day' is celebrated every year on
(a) 5th April (b) 26th November
(c) 1st May (d) 5th June
14. Which one of the following organizations is directly related to the Child Welfare ?
(a) UNESCO (b) UNICEF
(c) WHO (d) WTO
15. The Theory of 'Social Engineering' was propounded by
(a) Austin (b) Ivor Jennings
(c) Roscoe Pound (d) Dicey
16. A secular State
(a) promotes Religions (b) demotes Religions
(c) integrates Religions (d) remains neural of Religions
17. What is the minimum reservations prescribed by the Constitution for Women in Panchayats ?
(a) 50 Percen (b)
(c) One-third (d)
18. Which country is not a permanent member of United Nations' Security Council ?
(a) U.S.A (b) Russia
(c) Germany (d) France
19. In which year "Copenhagen Summit Conference" on climate change was held ?
(a) 2008 (b) 2010
(c) 2009 (d) 2011
20. Which Article of the Charter of the United Nations permitted Right to Self defence ?
(a) Article 2 (b) Article 51
(c) Article 13 (d) Article 47
21. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties (d) Judicial Review
22. Which of the following States in India is having a Legislative Council ?
(a) Punjab (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gujrat (d) Andhra Pradesh
23. Who has been appointed as Chairperson of National Women Commission recently ?
(a) Krishna Teerath (b) Chandresh Kumari
(c) Girija Vyas (d) Ambika Soni
24. Which Fundamental Right was declared by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 'heart and soul' of the Contitution ?
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies under Article 32
(c) Right to Life
(d) Right to Equality
25. In which year biggest Arms Reduction Pact between U.S. and Russia was signed ?
(a) 2007 (b) 2008
(c) 2009 (d) 2010
26. Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj System was given by
(a) 24th Amendment (b) 25th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment (d) 73 rd Amendment
27. National and State Disaster management Authority is constituted under
(a) Cabinet Decision
(b) Planning Commission Decision
(c) Disaster Management Act, 2005
(d) Natural Calamities Management Act, 2005
28. The National Judicial Academy is located at
(a) New Delhi (b) Hyderabad
(c) Bhopal (d) Bangalore
29. The Planning Commission of India is a
(a) Statutory Body (b) Advisory Body
(c) Constitutional Body (d) Autonomous Body
30. In which case the Supreme Court of India laid down that evidence can be recorded by Video Conferencing ?
(a) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India
(b) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
(c) Pappu Yadav V. State of Bihar
(d) kartar Singh V. State of Punjab
31. The Right to Information Act was enacted in
(a) 2002 (b) 2005
(c) 2007 (d) 2010
32. Right to speedy trial is
(a) Constitutional Right (b) Fundamental Right
(c) Legal Right (d) Directive Principle of the State Policy
33. Public Holidays are declared under
(a) Constitution of India (b) Right to Information Act
(c) Negotiable Instruments Act (d) Indian Contract Act
34. The official language of the Union of India shall be hindi in Devnagari script is mentioned in
(a) Article 341 (b) Article 342
(c) Article 343(1) (d) Article 344
35. Who was the first President of Constitutent Assembly of India ?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. K.N. Katju
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) C. Rajagopalachari
36. Who is the author of the book 'Mudrarakshas' ?
(a) Kalidas (b) Vishakadutta
(c) Banabhatta (d) Jaydev
37. Which of the following is tallest building in the world ?
(a) Effiel Tower (b) Burj Khalifa
(c) Statue of Liberty (d) Qutub Minar
38. On which issue Srikrishna Committee rec ently submitted its Report ?
(a) Telangana issue (b) Tax Reforms
(c) Kashmir issue (d) naxal issue
39. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on
(a) 26th Jan., 1954 (b) 26th Jan., 1957
(c) 26 th jan., 1958 (d) 26 th jan., 1959
40. The Institution of 'Ombudsman' first started in
(a) Germany in 1800 (b) Sweden in 1809
(c) England in 1874 (d) India in 1950
41. How many Schedules are there in the Constitution of India /
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 12
42. In which year Mayor's Courts were introduced in three Presidency Towns in India ?
(a) 1726 (b) 1772
(c) 1774 (d) 1781
43. The 16th SAARC Summit 2010 was held at
(a) Maldive (b) Pakistan
(c) Bhutan (d) Sri Lanka
44. Who is said to be the originator of the doctrine of separation of powers ?
(a) Dicey (b) Montesqueue
(c) Locke (d) Plato
45. Which provision of the Constitution of India deals with national Commission for Scheduled Castes ?
(a) Article 338 (b) Article 338A
(c) Article 340 (d) Article 343
46. 'World investment Report' is an annual publication of
(a) I.M.F (b) World Bank
(c) UNCTAD (d) W.T.O
47. Chapter-II of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall not be deemed to effect any rule of
(a) Christian Law (b) Muslim Law
(c) Parsi Law (d) None of the above
48. By which Amendment, Article 21-A is added in the Constitution of India ?
(a) 84th Amendment, 2001 (b) 85th Amendment, 2001
(c) 86th Amendment, 2002 (d) 87th Amendment, 2003
49. Which type of euthanasia is permitted by the Supreme Court in 'Aruna Shanbaug V. Union of India', A.I.R. 2011 S.C. 1290 ?
(a) Active euthanasia (b) Passive euthanasia
(c) Voluntary euthanasia (d) Non-Voluntary euthanasia
50. Under International law the obligation of neutral country is
(a) Abstention (b) Prevention
(c) Acquiescence (d) All the above
51. Who can make an admission under Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Witness to a Proceeding (b) A Party to Proceeding
(c) A Third Party (d) The Court
52. Under Evidence Act photo of a building is
(a) a primary evidence (b) a secondary evidence
(c) no evidence (d) None of the above
53. Which of the following is the best evidence ?
(a) Documentary evidence (b) Direct evidence
(c) Hearsay evidence (d) Circumstantial evidence
54. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, a judge is empowered to ask any question relevant or irrelevant to a witness or a party to a suit ?
(a) Section 164 (b) Section 165
(c) Section 166 (d) None of the above
55. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 73 of the Evidence Act was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution ?
(a) State of Bombay Vs. kathikalu
(b) Rattan Singh Vs. Himachal Pradesh
(c) kashmira Singh Vs. State of M.P
(d) None of the above
56. Which one of the following is not a case on 'Dying Declaration' ?
(a) Rattan Guad Vs. State of Bihar
(b) Paniben Vs. State of Gujarat
(c) Sita Ram Vs. State of U.P
(d) Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Maharashtra
57. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the words "to form part of the same transaction" are provided ?
(a) Section 5 (b) Section 6
(c) Section 7 (d) Section 8
58. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the words "facts not otherwise relevant, become relevant" are provided ?
(a) Section 9 (b) Section 11
(c) Section 12 (d) Section 14
59. A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. The above is the illustration of
(a) Section 8 of the Evidence Act (b) Section 12 of the Evidence Act
(c) Section 14 of the Evidence Act (d) Section 13 of the Evidence Act
60. Which one in the following is not an exception to the 'Rule of hearsay' ?
(a) Dying Declaration (b) Res Gestae
(c) Opinion of Expert (d) Confession
61. The form of Dying Declaration is
(a) immaterial (b) material
(c) must be in writing only (d) must be orally spoken only
62. The question is whether 'A' committed a crime at Lucknow on certain day. The fact that, on that day 'A' was at Delhi, is a relevant fact under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Section 9 (b) Section 10
(c) Section 11 (d) Section 12
63. A 'Dying Declaration' to admissible under Indian Evidence Act must be made before
(a) Magistrate
(b) Police Officer
(c) Doctor or Private Person
(d) Magistrate, Polilce officer, doctor or Private person
64. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, D.N.A. test can be admitted in Evidence ?
(a) Section 47 (b) Section 45
(c) Section 48 (d) Section 49
65. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with 'Hostile witness' ?
(a) Section 134 (b) Section 154
(c) Section 155 (d) Section 157
66. Which one of the following is provided under Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Acceptance of an Evidence (b) Rejection of an Evidence
(c) Evidence of deaf and dumb (d) Evidence of an accomplice
67. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act bad character of an accused is not relevant /
(a) Section 54 (b) Section 52
(c) Section 53 (d) Section 118
68. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 'Admission' is defined ?
(a) Section 17 (b) Section 18
(c) Section 21 (d) Section 20
69. Which of the following is not a public document under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Judgement of the Court (b) Arrest Warrant
(c) Will (d) Affidavit
70. under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provision relating to "Examination-in- Chief " is provided ?
(a) Section 138 (b) Section 137
(c) Section 136 (d) Section 135
71. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act admissibility of Evidence shall be decided
(a) Section 132 (b) Section 136
(c) Section 138 (d) Section 140
72. Which one of the following terms has not been defined by the Indian Evidence Act under Section 3 ?
(a) Court (b) Document
(c) Evidence (d) Confession
73. In which Section of the Civil Procedure Code term 'Mesne Profits' has been defined ?
(a) Section 2(4) (b) Section 2(8)
(c) Section 2(12) (d) Section 2(14)
74. The Provision of Civil Procedure Code
(a) Specifically apply to Writ Petitions
(b) Do not specifically apply to Writ Petitions
(c) Always apply to Writ Petitions
(d) Never apply to Writ Petitions
75. order VII, Rule 10 of Civil Procedure Code provide for
(a) Return of Plaint (b) Rejection of Plaint
(c) Admission of Plaint (d) Both (a) and (b) above
76. Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the court of first instance, is the essence of
(a) Section 21-A (b) Section 20
(c) Section 22 (d) Section 21
77. Under which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure "Inherent powers of theCourt" has been provided ?
(a) Section 151 (b) Section 141
(c) Section 152 (d) Section 153
78. Under which Section of the Civil Procedure Code "Pecuniary Jurisdiction" of the Court has been provided ?
(a) Section 3 (b) Section 4
(c) Section 5 (d) Section 6
79. In which Section of the Civil Procedure Code provision relating to "Suit of a Civil nature" has been provided ?
(a) Section 8 (b) Section 9
(c) Section 10 (d) Section 11
80. Under which Section of Code of Civil Procedure provisions relating to "Principle of Res Judicata" has been provided ?
(a) Order XL, Rule 1 (b) Order XXI, Rule 1
(c) Order XI, Rule 1 (d) Order XX, Rule 1
81. Which of the following properties are liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree under Section 60 of the Civil Procedure Code ?
(a) Bank Notes, Cheques and Bill of Exchange
(b) Cooking vessels, beds & Wearing apparels
(c) Books of Accounts
(d) Stipends and Gratuity
82. Under the Code of Civil Procedure "pleadings" means
(a) Plaint only (b) Written statement only
(c) Affidavit (d) Plaint and Written Statement
83. Under Section 104 of the Code of Civil Procedure an appeal can be preferred against
(a) an order under Section 91 to refuse permission to institute suit
(b) an order under Section 95 for compensation
(c) an order under Section 92
(d) All of the above
84. Which order of the Civil Procedure Code provides for a "Representative suit "?
(a) Order I, Rule 1 (b) Order II, Rule 1
(c) Order III, Rule 1 (d) Order IV, Rule 1
85. Order XXXIX, Rule 2 of the Civil Procedure Code deals with
(a) Attachment before judgement (b) Temporary Injunction
(c) Execution of decree (d) Appointment of Receiver
86. Which Section of the Civil Procdure Code prohibits arrest and detention of women in execution of decree for money ?
(a) Section 55 (b) Section 56
(c) Section 57 (d) Section 58
87. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(a) Institution of Suit : Order IV
(b) Judgement and Decree : Order XX
(c) Issue of Summons : Order V
(d) Issue of Commissions : Order XXI
88. Under which Section/Order of the Civil Procedure Code a Provision is made to provide "free legal services to indigent persons"?
(a) Section 151 (b) Section 115
(c) Order XXXIII, Rule 18 (d) XXXIX, Rule 2
89. As provided in Section 79 of the Code of Civil Procedure a suit by the Central Government must be filed in the name of
(a) The President of India (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Prime Minister of India (d) Union of India
90. Which Section of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for Right to lodge a 'Caveat'?
(a) Section 148 (b) Section 148-A
(c) Section 153-A (d) Section 153-B
91. Which Section of the Civil Procedure Code grants exemption to Members of Legislatures from arrest and detention under civil process ?
(a) Section 80 (b) Section 134
(c) Section 135-A (d) Section 132
92. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called
(a) Anomalous Mortgage (b) English Mortgage
(c) Equitable Mortgage (d) Usufructuary Mortgage
93. Which is not covered by the term 'Transfer of Property' ?
(a) Gift (b) Exchange
(c) Family settlement (d) Lease
94. The Transfer of Property Act was enacted in the year
(a) 1883 (b) 1882
(c) 1881 (d) 1880
95. In which Section of Transfer of Property Act 'Onerous gift' is provided ?
(a) Section 127 (b) Section 126
(c) Section 125 (d) Section 124
96. Under Transfer of Property Act gift of future property is
(a) Valid (b) Voidable
(c) Void (d) Irregular
97. Under which Section of Transfer of Property Act 'Fraudulent Transfer' is defined ?
(a) Section 21 (b) Section 35
(c) Section 53 (d) Section 41
98. By which of the following means, transfer of actionable claim may be made ?
(a) By Oral Agreement
(b) By Registered Instrument
(c) By an instrument in writing signed by transferor
(d) By a registered instrument attested by two witnesses.
99. Bellamy V. Sabine Case is related with which doctrine ?
(a) Doctrine of Perpetuity (b) Doctrine of Election
(c) Lis Pendens (d) Part-Performance
100. Which of the following interest is not transferable ?
(a) Vested Interest (b) Spes Successionsis
(c) Contingent Interest (d) Interest of Lessee
101. An universal done is liable to the creditors of the donor, the liability of the done is
(a) Personal
(b) To the extent of value of gifted property in hand
(c) Based on pious obligation
(d) Limited to reasonable extent
102. Which of the following Sections of T.P. Act contains exceptions to the Maxim "Nemodat quod non-habets"?
(a) Section 41 and 42 (b) Section 41 and 44
(c) Section 41 and 43 (d) None of the above
103. Which Section was amended by the Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act 2002 ?
(a) Section 100 (b) Section 106
(c) Section 108 (d) Section 110
104. Prabodh Kumar Das V. Dantamara Tea Co. Ltd. Case is related with the following doctrine :
(a) Doctrine of Election (b) Doctrine of Lis Pendens
(c) Doctrine of Part-Performance (d) Doctrine of Priority
105. How many witnesses are required for attesting an instrument under Transfer of Property Act ?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 2
106. Whether partition of property can be called as transfer of property ?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
107. Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with
(a) Rule against perpetuity
(b) Doctrine of Election
(c) Doctrine of Apportionment
(d) Transfer for the benefit of unborn person
108. In which Section of the Transfer of Property Act the provisions regarding rights and liabilities of lessor and lessee are provided ?
(a) 107 (b) 108
(c) 109 (d) 110
109. 'A' transfers his property to 'B' for life and thereafter to his unborn son for life. In this case transfer of property to the unborn son is
(a) Valid (b) Illegall
(c) Voidable (d) Void
110. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a Mortgage as defined u/sec. 58(a) of T.P.A. ?
(a) There must be transfer of interest.
(b) There must be promise to transfer of interest.
(c) The interest must be of some specific immovable property.
(d) The purpose of transfer must be to ensure payment of a debt.
111. 'A' transfers his property to 'B' by mortgage with the condition that for ten years 'B' will take the mortgage money from the income of the property and thereafter 'A' shall redeem the property by making the payment of remaining amount. This mortgage is
(a) Mortgage by conditional sale (b) Anomalus mortgage
(c) Simple mortgage (d) English mortgage
112. In Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the Provision of 'Divorce by Mutual Consent' was added by an
(a) Amendment in 1964 (b) Amendment in 1976
(c) Amendment in 1978 (d) Amendment in 1980
113. The child born of void and voidable marriage under Hindu Law is
(a) Legitimate (b) Illegitimate
(c) Illegal (d) None of the above
114. The Provision for 'maintenance pendent lite' in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is given in
(a) Section 22 (b) Section 25
(c) Section 24 (d) Section 23
115. Concealment of pre-marriage pregnancy by the respondent can make marriage
(a) Voidable (b) Void
(c) Valid (d) None of the above
116. A person who dies without making a will is known as "Intestate". This has been defined under Hindu Succession Act in
(a) Section 3(c) (b) Section 3(g)
(c) Section 3 (h) (d) Section 4
117. The constitutional validity of Section 9 of Hindu marriage Act for the first time came for consideration in the case of
(a) Harvinder Kaur V. harminder Singh
(b) Babooram V. Sushila
(c) T. Sareetha V.T. Venkata Subbaih
(d) Saroj Rani V. Sudarshan Kumar
118. What is the effect of Judicial Separation on marital relation under Hindu marriage Act ?
(a) Marital relations comes to an end
(b) Marital relations is suspended
(c) Marriage becomes void
(d) Marriage become voidable
119. Under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the right to 'Permanent Alimony' is available
(a) to the husband only (b) to the wife only
(c) to both husband and wife (d) to the dependents only
120. The case relating to 'Constructive desertion' is
(a) Sunil Kumar V. Swarnalata (b) Bipin Chandra V. Prabhavati
(c) Dastance V. Dastane (d) jyotish Chandra V. Meera
121. Under Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu includes
(a) Buddhist (b) Sikh
(c) Jain (d) All the above
122. Which Section of Hindu Marriage Act define 'Spinda Relationship' ?
(a) Section 2 (a) (b) Section 2 (b)
(c) Section 3 (f) (d) Section 2 (g)
123. In which Section of Hindu marriage Act grounds of Divorce are provided ?
(a) Section 11 (b) Section 13
(c) Section 9 (d) Section 7
124. Section 3(c) of the Hindu Succession Act defines
(a) Agnate (b) Cognate
(c) Full blood &nbnbsp; (d) Half blood
125. 'Divorce by Mutual Consent' has been provided in
(a) Section 13 (1A) (b) Section 13A
(c) Section 13B (d) Section 13(2)
126. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the minimum period of desertion for filing a suit for Judicial separation is
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years
(c) 7 years (d) 2 years
127. A Hindu male of 30 years adopts a female child of 15 years of age. The adoption is
(a) valid (b) voidable
(c) void (d) illegal
128. Section 23 and 24 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 has been omitted by Amendment Act
(a) 1999 (b) 2004
(c) 2005 (d) 2010
129. In which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 'bigamy' is prohibited ?
(a) Section 15 (b) Section 17
(c) Section 19 (d) Section 21
130. The Hindu marriage Act, 1955 came into force on
(a) 26th January, 1955 (b) 15th August, 1955
(c) 18th May, 1955 (d) 30th January, 1955
131. Dastance V. Dastane is a case on
(a) Adoption (b) Marriage
(c) Guardianship (d) Divorce
132. under Muslim Law the right of 'Shufaa' is firstly available to
(a) Shafi-i-Jar (b) Shafi-i-Khalil
(c) Shafi-i-Sharik (d) None of the above
133. Which one of the following is not a source of Muslim Law ?
(a) Quran (b) Sunnat
(c) Ijma (d) Shruti
134. Which one of the following is not the right of a wife on non-payment of Dower ?
(a) Refusal to cohabit
(b) Right to dower as debt
(c) Right to retain her deceased husband's property
(d) Right to increase or decrease dower
135. Which one of the following is not a mode of Talaq ?
(a) Refusal of Maintenance (b) Talaq-ul-Sunnat
(c) Talaq-ul-Biddat (d) Ila
136. In case of Divorce, the period of iddat is
(a) Four months (b) Three lunar months
(c) Two lunar months (d) None of the above
137. 'Muta' form of marriage is recognized in
(a) Hanafi School (b) Ithna Asharia School
(c) Maliki School (d) Ismilia School
138. The Rule of 'Rateable Abatement' applies in
(a) Wasiyat (b) Hiba
(c) Sadqa (d) Ariat
139. Divorce by Mutual Consent in Muslim Law is known as
(a) Lian (b) Faskh
(c) Zihar (d) mubarat
140. principle of 'Musha' is recognized by
(a) Shia Law (b) hanafi Law
(c) maliki Law (d) Shafei Law
141. Bequest of 'Life Interest' in Muslim law is
(a) Valid (b) Void
(c) Voidable (d) None of the above
142. 'Doctrine of Cypres' is related with
(a) Marriage (b) Mehar
(c) Waqf (d) Hiba
143. Hiba of future property in Muslim Law is
(a) Invalid (b) Valid
(c) Valid under certain conditions (d) None of the above
144. A Sunni Muslim marries a Kitabya girl, the marriage is
(a) Void (b) Valid
(c) Irregular (d) None of the above
145. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act came into force in
(a) 1933 (b) 1937
(c) 1939 (d) 1941
146. Shariat Act, 1937 came into operation on
(a) 7th Jan., 1937 (b) 7th July, 1937
(c) 7th June, 1939 (d) 7th Oct., 1937
147. Marriage in Islam is a
(a) Contract (b) sacrament
(c) Contract as well as sacrament (d) neither contract nor sacrament
148. Which of the following is not an essential of a valid hiba (gift) ?
(a) The Declaration (ljab) (b) The Acceptance (Qubul)
(c) Taking of Possession (Qubza) (d) Writing and Registration
149. Bohara Community follows which School of Muslim law ?
(a) Hanafi School (b) Maliki School
(c) Jafari School (d) Ismaili School
150. Under Muslim law, a will may be made of
(a) one fourth of property (b) one third of property
(c) one half of property (d) entire property
151. Dower (Mehar) absolutely belongs to
(a) The Wife (b) Wife's father
(c) Wife's mother (d) Partly to wife and partly to wife's parents
152. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, the word 'offence' has been defined ?
(a) Section 39 (b) Section 40
(c) Section 41 (d) Section 42
153. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code, the word 'Extortion' is defined ?
(a) Section 383 (b) Section 387
(c) Section 384 (d) Section 390
154. What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed for use of deadly weapons in dacoity under Indian Penal Code ?
(a) 10 years (b) 7 years
(c) 5 years (d) 14 years
155. Which Section of Indian Penal Code defines 'cruelty' ?
(a) Section 304-B (b) Section 356
(c) Section 376-A (d) Section 498-A
156. Which Section of Indian Penal Code provides for punishment for attempt to commit suicide ?
(a) Section 306 (b) Section 307
(c) Section 309 (d) Section 376
157. In which Section of Indian Penal Code the words 'Good faith' has not been used ?
(a) Section 90 (b) Section 89
(c) Section 92 (d) Section 93
158. Which Section of Indian Penal Code contains doctrine of transferred malice ?
(a) Section 299 (b) Section 300
(c) Section 301 (d) Section 302
159. In which case the Supreme Court of India has said that the time has come when Section 309 of the I.P.C. should be deleted by Parliament ?
(a) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug V. Union of India
(b) Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
160. In which Section of Indian Penal Code "Unalawful Assembly" has been defined?
(a) Section 141 (b) Section 142
(c) Section 140 (d) Section 143
161. Under which Section of I.P.C. a hangman who hangs criminals in pursuant to the order of Judge under I.P.C. is exempted from criminal liability ?
(a) Section 76 (b) Section 77
(c) Section 79 (d) None of the above
162. 'A' meets 'B' on National Highway, shows him a pistol and demands B's purse. 'B' in consequence surrenders his purse. Which one of the following offences was committed by 'A'
(a) Theft (b) Robbery
(c) Dacoity (d) None of the above
163. Under I.P.C. punishment for the offence of importing girls from any country outside India or from the State of jammu and Kashmir is upto 10 years if the age of the girl is under -----.
(a) 14 years (b) 16 years
(c) 18 years (d) 21 years
164. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with the defence of involuntary intoxication ?
(a) Section 84 (b) Section 85
(c) Section 86 (d) Section 87
165. The Right of Private Defence of body extends to causing deaths if there is
(a) apprehension of death (b) apprehension of grievous hurt
(c) intention of committing rape (d) All the above
166. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, committing theft of a computer from a shop is punishable ?
(a) Section 379 (b) Section 380
(c) Section 381 (d) Section 383
167. State of A.P. Vs. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following Sections of Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Section 501 and 502 (b) Section 299 and 300
(c) Sections 304-A and 304-B (d) Section 305 and 306
168. In which case the court made a clear distinction between 'common intention' and 'similar intention' ?
(a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor
(b) Mahboob Shah Vs. King Emperor
(c) Kripal Singh Vs. State of U.P.
(d) Rishi Deo Pandey Vs. State of U.P
169. 'Assault' under Section 351 of Indian Penal Code can be caused by
(a) gesture only (b) preparation only
(c) mere words (d) gestures or any preparation
170. Under which Section of Indian Penal Code Right to Privat Defence of Property extends to causing death ?
(a) Section 103 (b) Section 102
(c) Section 101 (d) Section 100
171. Under which Section of Indian penal Code dishonest misappropriation of property has been defined ?
(a) Section 403 (b) Section 405
(c) Section 406 (d) Section 415
172. Which Sections of Indian Penal Code provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force ?
(a) Section 171-A to 171-I (b) Section 124 to 129
(c) Section 131 to 140 (d) Section 165 to 171
173. The expression "unsoundness of mind "
(a) is not defined in I.P.C
(b) is defined in I.P.C
(c) is not treated as equivalent to insanity
(d) is not general exception in I.P.C.
174. The offence of 'abetment' is constituted by
(a) aiding (b) conspiring
(c) instigating (d) All the above
175. Which one of the following writers has observed that "Man's ignorance of law cannot be excused because he is bound to know it"?
(a) Austin (b) Bailey
(c) kelsen (d) None of the above
176. Death penalty cannot be done away with from Indian society. Life imprisonment is a rule and death penalty is an exception. Therefore, the apex court pronounced its judgement that it can be awarded only in "rarest of rare cases". The name of the case is
(a) Hardaya Vs. State of U.P (b) State of U.P. Vs. Parasnath
(c) Bachan Singh Vs. State of Punjab (d) Sri Bhagwan Vs. State of Rajasthan
177. Under Section of 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the maximum period of police custody of an arrested person is
(a) 90 days (b) 60 days
(c) 15 days (d) 7 days
178. Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a
(a) sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years
(b) sentence for life imprisonment
(c) death sentence
(d) sentence of imprisonment exceeding 7 years
179. Under which Section of Criminal Procedure Code compensation is paid to groundlessly arrested person ?
(a) Section 357 (b) Section 358
(c) Section 357-A (d) Section 360
180. The accused has indefeasible right to bail when investigation is not completed within
(a) 15 days (b) 30 days
(c) 21 days (d) 90 or 60 days
181. In which case Suprme Court of India directed the High Courts to exercise jurisdiction under Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(a) State of Haryana Vs. Bhajan Lal
(b) Adalat Prasad Vs. Navin Jindal
(c) Dinesh Dalmiya Vs. C.B.I.
(d) Dhananjay Chatterjee Vs. State of West Bengal
182. In which case Supreme Court held that only a legally wedded wife can claim maintenance under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code ?
(a) Savitaben somabhai Bhatia Vs. State of Gujarat
(b) S.K. Butt Vs. State of U.P
(c) Rajeev Choudhary Vs. State
(d) Janak Singh Vs. State of U.P.
183. Which Section of Cr. P.C. deals with case diary ?
(a) Section 169 (b) Section 171
(c) Section 172 (d) Section 157
184. Which Section of Cr. P.C. provides that no court shall alter the judgement after it has been signed ?
(a) Section 360 (b) Section 361
(c) Section 362 (d) Section 462
185. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. addition or alteration of charge has been provided ?
(a) Section 214 (b) Section 215
(c) Section 216 (d) Section 218
186. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. a search warrant is issued ?
(a) Section 92 (b) Section 93
(c) Section 94 (d) Section 96
187. Section 164 of Cr. P.C. provides about which of the following ?
(a) Recording of confession and statement
(b) Examination of witnesses by police
(c) Expert witnesses
(d) Investigation procedure
188. In which Section of the Cr. P.C. it is provided that a male child below the age of 15 years cannot be called at police station ?
(a) Section 160 (1) (b) Section 161(2)
(c) Section 160 (2) (d) Section 163
189. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. cognizable offence has been defined ?
(a) Section 2(a) (b) Section 2(c)
(c) Section 2(i) (d) Section 2(1)
190. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. investigation officer record the statement of witnesses /
(a) Section 160 (b) Section 162
(c) Section 161 (d) Section 164
191. Monthly amount of Maintenance under Section 125 of Cr. P.C. is
(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs 1, 000
(c) Rs. 5,000 (d) without any limit
192. Who is authorized to appoint Public Prosecutor for a District ?
(a) High Court (b) State Government
(c) District Judge (d) District Magistrate
193. Which court will grant the anticipatory bail under Section 438 of Cr. P.C. ?
(a) High Court (b) Session Court
(c) Session Court or High Court (d) Judicial Magistrate First Class
194. Which Section of Cr. P.C authorizes the Public Prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution ?
(a) Section 304 (b) Section 313
(c) Section 321 (d) Section 323
195. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. Provision regarding 'summary trial' is given ?
(a) Section 360-365 (b) Section 260-265
(c) Section 256-259 (d) Section 180-190
196. Classification of Bailable and Non-bailable offences in Cr. P.C. is provided under
(a) First Schedule of Cr. P.c. (b) Second Schedule of Cr. P.C
(c) Section 320 of Cr. P.C (d) Section 321 of Cr. P.C
197. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 'Presumption as to Dowry Death' is provided ?
(a) Section 111-A (b) Section 113-A
(c) Section 113-A (d) Section 113
198. Which one of the following is not a case on Estoppel ?
(a) Palvinder kaur Vs. State of Punjab
(b) Pickard Vs. Seers
(c) Sri Krishna Vs. Kurukshetra University
(d) Sarat Chand Dey Vs. Gopal Chand Laha
199. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act lays down the rule that in certain circumstances admission can be proved by or on behalf of the person making it ?
(a) Section 18 (b) Section 19
(c) Section 20 (d) Section 21