Punjab 2011

1. Point out incorrect response-The period of limitation for taking cognizance of
An offence shall be-
[a] Six months, if offence is punishable with fine only;
[b] One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding
One year;
[c] Three Years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding
One year but not exceeding three years;
[d]  Five years, if the offence is punishable with death sentence.
2. Which of the following courts, can under Section 106 Cr.P.C. release a convict
on security for keeping the peace and good behaviour?
[a] Sessions Court;                            [b] Magistrate1stClass;
[c] Appellate or Revisional Court;                   [d] All the above.
3. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section 125Cr.P.C.?
[a] Wife who can not maintain herself;
[b) Mother or father who can not maintain herself or himself;
[c] Major married daughter who can not maintain herself;
[d] Minor illegitimate daughter who can not maintain herself.
4. Procedure for 'summary trial' is provided in which Sections of the Cr.P.C.?
[a]  Sections251to260             [b]Sections238to250
[c]  Sections260to265             [d] Sections255to265
5. Whether the Court can issue search warrant  where it has no knowledge about
the document or thing to be in the possession of any person?
[a] No                [b] Only when it comes to know about the specific article;
[c] Yes;             [d] When specific place or person is specified.
6.  Whether a Criminal Court can impound any document produced before it:
[a]Yes             [b) Only civil court can impound;
[c]No                 [d] Only with the consent of police officer.
7. If a Magistrate administers oath before recording the confession of an accused,
the confessional statement is:
[a] good in law and admissible in evidence;
[b] bad in law and inadmissible in evidence;
[c] good in law but admissible only on corroboration;
[d] bad in law but becomes admissible on corroboration.
8. Compounding of offence under the provisions of Cr.P.C. results in:
[a] acquittal of accused;         [b]  acquittal only if the charges have been framed;
[c] discharge of accused;         [d] discharge only if the charges have been framed.
9. In a cognizable case the police will have powers to:
[a] investigate except the power to arrest without warrant;
[b] investigate and arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the
Magistrate;
[c] investigate including the power to arrest without warrant;
[d) investigate and arrest without warrant, only after informing the Magistrate having
Jurisdiction  to inquire into or try the offence.
10. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India.
The offender may be dealt with under which provision of the Cr.P.C.,1973?
[a] Section188                 [b) Section183
[c] Section182                 [d] Section186
11.  The Court may alter the charge:
[a] before the evidence of the prosecution is taken;
[b] before the accused enters upon his defence;
[c] when the evidence of prosecution and defence both is taken;
[d) before the judgment is pronounced.
12.  In which of the cases a plea bargain cannot be effected:
[a] where the offence is punishable with imprisonment exceeding 7 years;
[b] where the offence is against a child below 14 years;
[c] where the offence is against a woman;    
[d] all of the above.
13.  A Magistrate may take cognizance of an offence:
[a] on police report;                 [b) On private complaint;
[c) suo-motu                             [d] all of the above.
14. While living with her father at Indore, a minor became intimate with the accused and ran away with him to Bhopal. After some time they eventually settled in Mumbai.  An offence of kidnapping may be tried at:
[a] Indore                     [b] Bhopal
Ic] Mumbai                     [d) any place mentioned above.
15.  A Magistrate can authorize the detention of accused in police custody for a
Period of fifteen days.  When does this period beg into run?
[a]from the time of arrest by the police;
[b] after first remand.
[c]on expiry of twenty four hours of his arrest;
[d] after production of the accused before the Magistrate;
16.  Under Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872anagreement not to pursue
Any legal remedy to enforce the rights is .
[a] Valid                         [b) Voidable
[c) Void                         [d) unenforceable.
17. Which one of the following does not amount to 'fraud' under the Indian
Contract Act?
[a] suggestion as a fact which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true;
[b] active concealment of a fact;
[c] representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true;
[d] a promise made without any intention of performing it.
18. A contract not specifying the place of performance:
[a] can be performed at any place to the knowledge of the promisee;
[b) the promisor has to apply to the promisee for appointment of a place of
performance and perform the promise at that place;
[c] the promisor need not seek any instructions from the promisee as to the place of
performance;
[d] the promisor can perform the promise at a place other than the place appointed
by the promisee.
19. Novation of a contract means:
[a] renewal of original contract;
[b] substitution of a new contract in place of original contract;
[c] cancellation of contract;                
[d] alteration of the contract.
20. A contract signed between two countries, without specifying as to which
country's law shall govern in case of dispute:
[a] by the law of the country where the proposal was made;
[b] by the law of the country where the contract was concluded;
[c] by the law of the country which the parties intended to apply, i.e., where the
contract is localised;
[d] by the law where the contract is performed.
21. Revocation of offer by letter or telegram can be complete:
[a] when it is despatched;             [b] when it is received by the offeree;
[c] when it reaches the offeree;         [d] both [a) and [c].
22. The pawnee has a right to retain the goods pledged:
[a] for payment of debt interest & all necessary expenses in respect of goods pledged
[b] for payment of debt other than the debt in respect of goods pledged;
[c] for payment of interest & necessary expenses in respect of goods other than the
One pledged;               
[d] all the above.
23. B, the proprietor of a newspaper, publishes, at A's request, a libel upon C in the paper, and A agrees to indemnify 8 against the consequences of the publication, and all costs and damages of any action in respect thereof. 8 is sued by C and has to pay damages and also incurs expenses. Decide in the light of Section 224of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
[a] A is not liable to B upon indemnity;         [b] A is liable to B upon indemnity;
[c] A is not liable to C upon indemnity;         [d] None of above.
24. Which of the following are 'goods' within the meaning of Section2[7]of the
Sale of Goods Act,1930:
[a] things attached to land which are agreed to be severed before sale;
[b] things forming part of the land agreed to be severed befor esale;
[c] both[a]and[b]                
[d] neither[a]nor[b].
25.  "Mercantile agent" means the person:
[a] who sells goods, or consigns for the purpose of sale, or buy goods or raises
Money on security of goods;        
[b] who only sells or purchases;
[c] who only consigns goods;        
[d] who only transfers goods.
26.  A 'saleof goods' under the Sale of GoodsAct,1930,creates:
[a] a jusinrem                   
[b] a jus in personam
[c] both [a] and [b]
[d] either [a]or [b] depending on the facts and circumstances of the case.
27.  If a contract for sale of goods is for sale of two or more things under an entire
contract, the perishing of some of them would:
[a] avoid the whole contract;
[b] not avoid the contract at all;
[c] avoid the contract relating to the goods perished and not the whole contract;
[d] either[b]or [c]
28. Under Section 51 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930,the goods are in transit so
long as they are in :
[a] possession of the carrier qua buyer;
[b] possession of  the carrier qua carrier;
[c] possession of the carrier appointed by the buyer qua the buyer;
[d] none of the above.
29.  In a sale of goods by auction, as soon as the hammer falls, the goods:
[a] become the property of the buyer only on payment of price;
[b] become the property of the buyer even if there is a condition that the goods shall
Not be removed before payment;
[c] become the property of the buyer only if  there is no condition that the goods shall .
Not be removed before payment;
[d] do not become the property of the buyer however, the bidder is vested with the
- right to deal with them as owner. .
30.  A suit for recovery of possession of an immovable property under Section 6 of
the Specific Relief Act can be filed against:
[a] a private individual only;             [b] a government;
[c] both a private individual and a government;     [d] neither[a] nor[b].
31.  Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked:
[a] against a person who has possession or control over the article;
[b] against a person who is the owner of the article claimed;
[c] by a person not entitled to the possession of the article;
[d] in respect of an ordinary article.
32.  In case of specific performance of part of contract the purchaser:
[a] may relinquish claim to further performance of the remaining part of contract and
Has right to compensation;
[b] may not relinquish claim to further performance of the remaining part of contract
And has no right to compensation;
[c] specific performance of part of contract not possible;
[d] none of above.
33.  Rise in value since agreement is :
[a] a ground to refuse specific performance in case of an agreemen to sell
Immovable property;
[b] a ground to refuse specific performance in case of an agreement to sell movable
property;
[c] a ground to refuse specific performance in case of an agreement to sell
Immovable and movable property both;
[d] not a ground to refuse specific performance in case of an agreement to sell either
immovable or movable property. .
34.  In which of the following cases, the specific performance of a contract will not be ordered:
[a] where pecuniary compensation would afford adequate relief;
[b] where the acts would require continued supervision by the Court;
[c] where the contract provides for personal affirmative acts or personal service;
[d] all the above.
35.  Under Section11of the Specific Relief Act, 1930a contract made by a trustee
in excess of his powers or in the breach of a trusties :
[a] specifically enforceable at the instance of the trustee;
[b] specifically enforceable at the instance of the second party;
[c] specifically enforceable either at the instance of the trustee or at the instance of a
Second party;
[d] not specifically enforceable.
36.  Under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is NOT a specific
Ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
[a] public order
[b]morality
[c] social Justice
[d]health
37.  Respect for the National Flag and the National Anthem is :
[a] a fundamental right of every citizen;[b]a fundamental duty of every citizen;
[c] a directive principle of state policy; [d]an ordinary duty of every citizen.
38.  Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts within the Territory of India. Here 'courts' means:
[a] all courts including the Supreme Court of India;
[b] all courts except the Supreme Court of India;
[c] all courts including the Supreme Court except such benches of the Supreme
Court which consists of seven judges or more;
[d] all courts including Supreme Court except a bench of the Supreme Court which
Consists of all the judges of the Supreme Court.
39.The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure:
[a] fundamental rights to all individuals;
[b] fundamental duties to citizens of India;
[c] dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation;
[d] security of service to the Government servant.
40. Which one of the following proposition is correct description of the powers of
The President of India under Article 356 of the Constitution?
[a] if the Chief Minister inspite of commanding the confidence of the Legislative
Assembly, can not run his government in accordance with the Constitution, the
President can proclaim emergency;
[b] if the State Legislative Assembly fails to transact any business consecutively in
two sessions;
[c] the President can refer the matter to the Supreme Court for advice and act in
Accordance with such advice;
[d] the President can not make a proclamation of emergency if the governor refuses
to make a report.
41.  The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction re: a dispute between:
[a] the Government of India and a State or States;
[b] the Government of India and one State on one side and one or more States on
The other side;
[c] two States;                    
[d] a Citizen and a State.
42.  Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of state power of
reservation in admissions to educational institutions? .
[a] caste can be the sole criterion            
[b] poverty can be the sole criterion
[c] both caste and poverty are relevant criteria
[d] residence in rural areas and lack of educational facilities can be the exclusive
criteria
43.  Double jeopardy means:
[a] trying two persons jointly for the same offence;
[b] trying the same person for two offences at two different times;
[c] putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence;
[d] trying a person for different offences committed by him in one incident.
44.  On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill, after passing by each House of
Parliament, the President:
[a] shall give his assent;             [b] may give his assent;
[c] may with hold his assent;         [d] may return the bill for reconsideration.
45.  The right to 'equality before the law' contained in Article14of the Constitution
of India is available to :
[a] natural persons only                 [b] legal persons only
[c]  citizens of India;                 [d] all persons whether natural or legal.
46.  The power of judicial review means:
[a] the power of the courts to define and interpret Constitution;
[b] the powers of the courts to declare null and void any legislative or executive act,
. which is against the provisions of the Constitution;
[c] the power of the judiciary to define and interpret laws;
[d] the power of the courts to legislate when there is no statutory provision.
47.  Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during
emergency?
[a] freedom under Article19;
[b] right to Constitutional remedies under Article32 and 226;
[c] rights under Articles 21and22;            
[d] right under Article 20 and 21.
48.  When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common
Intention of all:
[a] each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if  it were done by
Him alone;
[b] each of such person is liable for his own over tact;
[c] each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in
The crime;                            
[d]none of the above.
49.  To establish Section 34 of IPC:
[a] a common intention is to be proved but not overt act be proved;
[b] common intention and over tact both have to be proved;
[c] common intention need not be proved but overt a Ct be proved;
[d] all the above.
50.  A is a warehouse-keeper. Z, going on a journey, entrusts his furniture to A,
Under a contract that it shall be returned on payment of a stipulated sum for
ware house room.  A dishonestly sells the goods.  For which offence A is liable:
[a] Cheating;.                     [b] Criminal misappropriation of property;
[c] Criminal breach of trust;             [d] None of the above.
51.  Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under Section 64of IPC:
[a] shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been
sentenced;
[b] shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment;
[c] shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment;        
[d] both [b] and [c].
52.   A, a snake-charmer, persuaded B to allow himself to be bitten by a poisonous snake, inducing B to believe that he had power to protect B from harm. B consented, and as a result died:
[a] A is not liable, as B consented to suffer the harm;
[b] A is liable, although B consented, such consent was founded on a misconception
Of fact, i.e., in the belief that A had the power to cure snake-bites;
[c] A is liable for murder and not culpable homicide;   
[d] None of the above is correct.
53.  In one of the famous cases, the Supreme Court has made the following
observation: "The right of private defence is a right of defence and it is not a
right of retribution".
[a] State of U.P.v Ram Swarup;
[c] Deo Narainv State of U.P.;
[b] State of Punjab v Nanak Chand;
[d] State of H.P.v Wazir Chand.
54.  Under Section 80 IPC, the exception of accident is available when an offence is Committed while:
[a] doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means;
[b] doing a lawful act in any manner by any means;
[c] doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means;     [d] both (b) and (c)
55.  Abetment by aid requires:
[a] active aiding;
[c] intentional aiding;
[b] passive aiding;
[d] none of these.
56.  Section 83 of IPC enunciates:
[a] a presumption of fact;
[b] an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law;
[c] conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law;
[d] irrebuttable presumption of fact
57.  'A' commits house-trespass by making a hole through the wall of Z's house
And putting his hand through the aperture. For which offence A is liable?
[a] lurking trespass;                         [b] Trespass;
[c] House-breaking;                         [d] none of the above.
58.  Is 'irresistible impulse' a defence?
[a] In India;
[c] Both in India and England;
[b] In England;
[d] Neither in Indian nor in England.
59.  Which of the following statements is correct:
[a] in conspiracy, there is no distinction between principal and accessory;
[b] in conspiracy, principal and accessory are distinct;
[c] there has to be a distinction between principal and accessory in all offences;
[d] None of the above is correct.
60.  Which of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?
[a] Comments expressing disapproval of the government policies with a view to
Obtain a change in policies by lawful means;
[b] proof of disloyalty or ill feelings;
[c] comments expressing disapproval of the administrative action even though these
do not excite hatred or disloyalty;
[d] Exciting disaffection towards the government.
61.  The defence of 'consent' applies to :
[a] private wrongs;
[b] both [a] and [b]
[b] public wrongs;
[d] neither [a] nor [b]
62.  Give correct response with respect to the difference  between Sec.34 and149:
[a] Section 34 does create specific offence while Section149 does not;
[b] active participation is needed in Section34 while not necessary in Section149;
[c] Both [a] and[b];                         [d] None of these.
63.  Cognizance of offence of defamation under  Chapter XXI of IPC can be taken:
[a] on a police report;         [b] on a complaint made by an aggrieved person;
[c] suo motu [d]all of the above.
64.  Ina case of free fight between two parties:
[a] right of private defence is available to both the parties;
[b] rightof private defence is available to individuals against individual;
[c] no right of private defence is available to either party;
[d] right to private defence is available only to one party.
65.  'A' pulled an ear ring away from a woman's ear and there by tore and wounded her ear. 'A' is guilty of :
[a] extortion;                                 [b] mischief;
[c] misappropriation;                         [d] robbery
66.  'Z' strikes B. 'B' is by this provocation excited to violent rage.  'A', a bystander,
Intending to take advantage of B's rage, and to cause him to kill 'Z', puts a knife
into B's hand for that purpose, 'B' kills 'Z' with the knife.  For which offence 'A'
is liable?
[a] Culpable homicide;
[c] Attempt to murder;
[b] Murder;
[d] No offence.
67.  For abetment:
[a] it is necessary that the person abetted should be capable of committing an offence
Under the law;
[b] it is necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention;
[c] it is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable of committing an
Offence under the law or should have the same guilty intention;
[d] none of the above.
68.  A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant under Section 6 of the
Evidence Act: .
[a] if it is in issue and have occurred at the same time and place;
[b] if it is in issue and may have occurred at different times and places;
[c] though not in. issue and may have occurred at the same time and place or at
different times and places;
[d] though not in issue, must have occurred at the same time and place.
69.  A person is proving his defence under one of the following exceptions.  State
Which of the following exceptions is correct:
[a] by oral evidence;                     [b] beyond all reasonable doubt;
[c] no evidence is applicable;            [d] when he is pleading preponderance                                 of probabilities.
70.  Admissions:
[a] must be examined as a whole and not in parts;     [b] can be examined in parts;
[c] can be examined as a whole or in parts;         [d] none of the above.
71.  Burden of proof:
[a] partially determines the right to begin;
[b] substantially determines the right to begin;
[c] wholly determines the right to begin;             
[d]none of the above.
72.  Confession of one accused is admissible against the co-accused:
[a] if they are tried jointly for the same offences;
[b] if they are tried jointly for different offences;
[c] if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly;
[d] if they are tried for different offences and no jointly.
73.  Contents of a document may be proved under Section 61of the Evidence Act:
[a] by primary evidence;                 [b] by secondary evidence;
[c] either by primary or by secondary evidence;
[d] only by primary evidence and not by secondary evidence.
74.  Due execution and authentication of a power of attorney shall be presumed
Under Section 85 of Evidence Act when executed before and authenticated by:
[a] a notary;                         [b] a judge;
[c] a magistrate;                     [d] all of the above.
75.  Estoppel can be:
[a] by silence;
[c] by election;
[b] by negligence;
[d] all the above.
76.  Husband and wife both are competent witness for and against each other:
[a] in civil proceedings;                 [b] in criminal proceedings;
[c] in both civil and criminal proceedings;
[d] neither in civil nor in criminal proceedings.
77.  In case a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother
Remaining unmarried the presumption of legitimacy of child under section112
Of Evidence Act arises:
[a] if the father is  alive on he day the child is born;
[b] if the father is not alive on the day the child is born;
[c] irrespective of whether the father is alive or dead on the day the child is born;
[d] none of the above.
78.  In Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, which one of the following is made
relevant?
[a] Occasion, intention and motive;
[b] motive, preparation and conduct;
[c] Motive, conduct and intention;
[d] Intention, motive and preparation.
79.  Latent ambiguity in a document means ambiguity:
[a] not subject to clarification by oral evidence;
[b] apparent on the face of the document;
[c] of hidden character and for the clarification of which oral evidence may be given;
[d] not allowed to be proved by oral evidence.
80.  Facts can be :
[a] physical facts                     [b] psychological facts
[c] physical as well as psychological facts .
[d] only physical facts and not psychological facts.
81.  Under Section 145 of Evidence Act, a witness may be cross-examined as to
Previous statement in writing: '
[a] without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness;
[b] only after proving the same, may be without showing the same to the witness;
[c] without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness;
[d] only after proving the same and showing the same to the witness.
82.  Under Section118 who amongst the following are competent witnesses:
[a]Child;                             [b]Accused;
[c]Lunatic;                             [d]all the above.
83.  'Self-regarding' statements:
[a] can be self-serving statements;
[c] can be self-serving or self-harming;
[b] can be self-harming statements;
[d] none of the above.
84.  The 'relationship' in Section 50 of the Evidence Act means:
[a] relationship by blood only;             [b] relationship by blood or marriage;
[c]relation ship by blood or marriage or adoption;            [d] none of the above.
85.  The presumption under Sec. 90 of the Evidence Act can be drawn in respect of :
[a] original documents only;                 [b] certified copies only;
[c] uncertified copies only;                     [d] all the above.
86.  A person of which of the following blood groups is called a universal donor?
[a] 0                                 [b] AB
[c] A                                 [d] B
87.  What is the minimum age prescribed for membership to the Lok Sabha?
[a] 21 years                             [b] 25 years
[c] 30 years                             [d] 35 years
88.  The Indian ruler who defeated the English in the early stage of English rule in
India was:
[a] Ranjit Singh                         [b] Mahadaji Sindhia;
[c] Hyder Ali                             [d] Tipu Sultan.
89.  Which of the following mountains are the oldest?
[a] Nilgiris                             [b] Aravali
[c] Himalaya                             [d] Satpurarange
90.  Playing time of the full version of National Anthem is :
[a] approx. 90 seconds;                     [b] approx.60 seconds;
[c] approx. 52 seconds;                     [d] approx.42 seconds.
91.  Who said 'Education is the best contraceptive for population stabilisation?
[a] Dr.Man Mohan Singh;                     [b] Sam Pitroda;
[c] Som Nath Chatte~ee;                     [d] Pranab Mukherjee
92.  'Sepoy Mutiny' of 1857started from:
[a] Agra                            [b] Gwalior
[c] Jhansi                             [d] Meerut
93.  The one rupee note bears the signature of :
[a] Secretary, Ministry of Finance;         [b] Governor, Reserve Bank of India;
[c] Finance Minister;                     [d] None of these.
94.  Who developed the small pox vaccination?
[a] Eduard Jenner                         [b] Alexander Fleming;
[c] Albert Einstein                         [d] None of these.
95.  Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the Court is required to consider
the question of limitation:
[a] only when objection to limitation is taken raised by the defendant;
[b] only when the defendant does not contest the claim;
[c] only when the defendant does not admit his liability;
[d] suo-motu even when the defendant has not taken any objection of limitation.
96.  Section 5 of Limitation Act is :
[a] applicable to the proceeding sunder Section34,Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996 and the time limit prescribed under Section 34 can be extended generally;
[b] not applicable to the proceedings under Section 34 Arbitration &Conciliation Act,
1996 and the time limit prescribed under Section 34 is absolute and un-extendable.
[c] applicable to the proceedings under Section 34 Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996 and time limit prescribed under Section 34 can be extended only in exceptional
circumstances; .'
[d] not applicable to the proceedings under Section 34 Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996, however, the time limit prescribed under Section 34 can be extended
under inherent powers of the court.
97.  Which is not correct of law of limitation:
[a] limitation bars the judicial remedies;
[b) limitation is an adjective law;
[c] limitation extinguishes the right;
[d] limitation is a procedural law.
98.  A decree of restitution of conjugal rights, in India, can be executed by :
[a] attachment of the property of the respondent;
[b] arrest of the respondent;
[c] attachment of property and arrest of the respondent both;
[d] either attachment of property or by arrest of the respondent.
99.  A party is regarded as not having the mental capacity to solemnize the
marriage, if suffering from:
[a] unsoundness of mind;                     [b] mental disorder;
[c] insanity or epilepsy;                     [d) all the above.
100.  Bigamy is committed, if the subsisting marriage is :
[a] valid;                             [b] voidable
[c) void                             [d] either [a] or [b]
101.  Incapacity to consummate the marriage with in the meaning of Section12 of
Hindu Marriage Act,1955:
[a] can be physical;                         [b]can be mental;
[c) either physical or mental;                 [d) only physical and not mental.
102.  Non-registration of marriage under Section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act,1955:
[a] invalidates the marriage and calls for imposition of penalty;
[b] does not invalidate the marriage but calls for imposition of penalty;
[c] neither in validates the marriage nor calls for imposition of penalty;
[d] makes the marriage voidable.
103.  Under Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, repudiation of marriage as a ground for divorce is available to:
[a] wife only;                             [b] husband only;
[c] both wife and husband;                     [d] None of the above.
104.  A woman married under Muslim law shall been titled to obtain a decree for the dissolution of marriage on the ground that the husband has failed to perform,
With out reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of:
[a] one year                             [b] two years
[c] three years                         [d] seven years.
105.  A Corporation, under Section20 of CPC, is deemed to carry on business at:
[a] its principal office in India;                 [b] its subordinate office in India;
[c] both [a] and [b]                         [d] none of the above.
106.  A person can act as a 'next friend' if he is:
[a} major                             [b) sound mind;
[c) not having any interest adverse to that of a minor or lunatic residing in India;
[d) fulfilling all the above three requirements.
107.  A person who institutes a suit in a foreign court and claims a decree in
personam, after the judgment is pronounced against him:
[a] can always challenge the judgment on the ground of competency;
[b] can never challenge the judgment on the ground of competency;
[c]has the option to challenge it at any time;         [d]none of the above.
108.  A receiver:
[a] can be sued generally for acts done in his official capacity by a third party;
[b]cannot be sued at all for acts done in his official capacity by a third party;
[c]can sue and can be sued for acts done in his official capacity by a third party only
With the leave of the court appointing him;         
[d] none of the above.
109.  After being proceeded against ex-parte, the defendant is :
[a] precluded absolutely from participating in any proceeding in the suit;
[b] at liberty to join the proceedings at the stage where the proceedings are pending;
[c] at liberty to join the proceedings and do all the things which it would have done,
Had he not been proceeded against ex-parte, without getting the ex-parte order set
aside;                                
[d] none of the above.
110.  Amendment in pleading shall be effective:
[a] from the date of the pleading;             [b] from the date of the application;
[c] from the date of the order;             [d] none of the above.
111.  Attachment of property attached shall remain operative under Order 39 Rule 2A of CPC for a period of :
[a] six months;                         [b] three years;
[c] one year;                             [d] seven years.
112.  Awarding future interest is :
[a] mandatory;
[c] discretionary;
[b] directory;
[d] none of the above.
113.  Costs imposed under Section 35.8 of CPC:
[a] shall be included in the costs awarded in the decree passed in the suit;
[b] shall not be included in the costs awarded in the decree passed in the suit;
[c] shall, if not paid, be executable. against the person on whom the costs have been
imposed;                             
[d] only [b] and [c]
114.  Decree means:
[a] an order adjudicating claims;
[b] informal expression of an adjudication;
[c] formal expression of an adjudication but shall not include any adjudication from
Which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order;
[d] none of the above.
115.  Foreign judgment as defined under Section 2[6] of CPC means:
[a] judgment given by an Indian Court in respect of foreigners;
[b] judgment given by a Foreign Court;
[c] judgment given by an Indian Court established under any Foreign Act;
[d] none of the above.
116.  In an interpleader suit, the plaintiff claims:
[a] interest in the subject matter of the suit;
[b] no interest in the subject matter of the suit except charges or costs;
[c] no interest in the subject matter of the suit also not claims charges or costs;
[d] none of the above.
117.  In every plaint, under Section26 of CPC, facts should be proved by
[a] oral evidence;                             [b] affidavit;
[c] document;                             [d] none of the above.
118.  Notice under Section 80 CPC has to be served on :
[a] the Secretary to the Government;         [b) the Deputy Commissioner;
[c)  the President of India;                 [d] All of the above.
119.  On abatement of suit, under Order 22,Rule 9 of CPC:
[a] a fresh suit on the same cause of action can be brought as a matter of right;
[b) a fresh suit on the same cause of action can be brought only with the permission
Of the Court; ..
[c) a fresh suit on the same cause of action is barred; [d]none of the above.
120.  Provisions of Section 39 of CPC are:
[a] permissive and not mandatory;
[b] mandatory and not permissible;
[c) mandatory and discretionary;
[d) none of the above.
121.  Under Order 23,Rule 3 of CPC, on the basis of a compromise:
[a] a decree as to be drawn only in respect of the subject matter that relates to the
suit; .
[b) a decree has to be drawn for the entire compromise so long as it embraces part of
the subject matter of the suit and part outside it;
[c) a decree has to be drawn where the compromise does not embrace the subject
Matter of the suit at all;                   
[d]none of the above.
122.  Which of the following properties of ajudgment debtor are liable to be attached
[a]  personal ornaments of religious usage of a woman;
[b] tools of artisan and cattle and seed grain;
[c)]books of accounts;
[d] shares in a corporation and government securities.
123.  'X' dies leaving behind a son 'Y' and a married daughter 'Z', a suit filed by 'X' After his death, can be continued by :
[a] 'Y' alone as legal representative;
[b] 'Z' alone as legal representative;
[c] 'Y',Z' and the husband of Z as legal representatives;
[d] "Y' and 'Z' both, as legal representatives.
124.  Under Section 32 of Evidence Act, the opinion:
[a] as to public rights & customs are admissible;
[b] as to private rights & customs are admissible;
[c] as to both public and private rights and customs are admissible;
[d] only as to customs are admissible.
125.  Under the Evidence Act, fact means
[a] factum probandum
[c] both factum probandum and factum probans
[b] factum probans;
[d] none of the above.



ANSWER KEY


1. d
2. d
3. c
4. c
5. c
6. a
7. a
8. a
9. c
10. a
11. d
12. d
13. d
14. d
15. c
16. c
17. c
18. b
19. b
20. c
21. a
22. a
23. a
24. c
25. a
26. a
27. a
28. b
29. b
30. a
31. a
32. a
33. d
34. d
35. d
36. c
37. b
38. b
39. c
40. a
41. d
42. a
43. c
44. a
45. d
46. b
47. d
48. a
49. a
50. c
51. a
52. b
53. a
54. a
55. c
56. b
57. c
58. d
59. a
60. d
61. a
62. a
63. b
64. c
65. d
66. b
67. c
68. c
69. d
70. c
71. a
72. a
73. c
74. d
75. d
76. c
77. c
78. b
79. c
80. c
81. a
82. d
83. c
84. c
85. a
86. a
87. b
88. c
89. b
90. c
91. c
92. d
93. a
94. a
95. d
96. b
97. c
98. a
99. d
100. d
101. c
102. b
103. c
104. c
105. a
106. d
107. b
108. c
109. b
110. a
111. c
112. c
113. d
114. c
115. b
116. b
117. b
118. a
119. c
120. a
121. a
122. d
123. d
124. a
125. c