Punjab 2010

1.    A dual economy means
I.    the existence of black money and white money
II.    the existence of agriculture and industry
III.    the esistence of commercial agriculture with subsistence farming
IV.    modern industry and commercial agriculture co-existing with subsistence farming.
(a)    I only
(b)    II only
(c)    III only
(d)    II, III and IV

2.    The term 'epicentre' is concerned with
(a)    Nuclear explosion
(b)    Earthquakes
(c)    Cyclonic storms
(d)    None of the above.

3.    Which one is not a port on the east cost?
(a)    Kolkata
(b)    Paradip
(c)    Kochi
(d)    Visakhapatnam

4.    The Indian Military Academy is located at
(a)    Dehradun
(b)    Mt. Abu
(c)    Hyderabad
(d)    Udhampur

5.    Which is the national Flower of India?
(a)    Sunflower
(b)    Rose
(c)    Lotus
(d)    Marigold

6.    What is Watergate'?
(a)    A gate of dam across misissippi
(b)    A dam across Hudson River
(c)    Scandal in which president Nixon got entangled
(d)    A five star hotel in Los Angeles

7.    Shakuntala was written by
(a)    Maithili Sharma Gupt
(b)    Swami Dayanand
(c)    Kalidas
(d)    Tulsidas

8.    GIR National Park is in
(a)    Rajasthan
(b)    Maharashtra
(c)    Gujarat
(d)    Assam

9.    The H.Q. of the International Court of Justice is at
(a)    The Hague
(b)    Geneva
(c)    Rome
(d)    Vienna


10.    Which of the following countries does not have the power of Veto in Security Council?
(a)    UK
(b)    Canada
(c)    USA
(d)    france


11.    Which athlete holding an Olympic record, belonging to a Commonwealth country, refused participation in CWG Games 2010 (Delhi) and apologized for same:-
(a)    Sebastian Coe
(b)    P.T. Usha
(c)    Bolt
(d)    Jeev Milkha Singh

12.    Who has recently been re-elected as the new President of Germany?
(a)    Angela merkel
(b)    Horst Koehler
(c)    Helmut Kohi
(d)    None of the above.

13.    Indira Gandhi prize for peace, Disarmament and Development for 2007 has been conferred on July 25, 2009 to
(a)    Bill Gates
(b)    Jacob Zuma
(c)    Asma Jahangir
(d)    None of the above.

14.    What is the expanded form of AWACS?
(a)    Airport Works and Customer Service
(b)    Airbone Warning and Control Systems
(c)    Agricultural Wealth and Consumer Statistics
(d)    Ammunition Warehousing and costing Symantics

15.    Recently India's celebrated artist M.F. Hussain has got the nationality of
Saudi Arabia
Oatar
Yemen
Oman

16.    Where in world was the world tallest skyscraper, towering 818 meters, opened in January, 2010?
(a)    Oman
(b)    Bahrain
(c)    Dubai
(d)    Seoul

17.    Which of the following teams clashed in the Semi-finals in the Soccer World Cup, 2010?
(a)    Germany and Holland
(b)    Spain and Holland
(c)    Spain and Germany
(d)    Uruguay and Holland

18.    Name the Prime Minister of U.K. who recently visited India-
(a)    Gordon Brown
(b)    Tony Blair
(c)    David Cameroon
(d)    Edward Heath

19.    A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after
(a)    it is passed by both Houses
(b)    the President has given his assent
(c)    the Prime Minister has signed it
(d)    it is so declared by the Supreme Court

20.    Dissolution of the House means that the life of the House has ended and a fresh House has to be constituted.  Which one of the following-House in India connot be dissovlved?
(a)    Lok Sabha
(b)    Rajya Sabha
(c)    Both (a) and (b)
(d)    None of the above.

21.    Dyarchy as a form of government at the provincial level was introduced by the
(a)    Government of India Act, 1919
(b)    Minto-Morley Reforms
(c)    Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(d)    Government of India Act, 1935

22.    Economic justice as one of the objectives of the Indian constitution has been
(a)    preamble and fundamental Rights
(b)    preamble and Directive Principles
(c)    fundamental Rights and directive Principles
(d)    preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive principles

23.    The President of India can declare Emergency if there is-
(a)    War or threat of war
(b)    Failure of Constitutional machinery
(c)    Financial instability
(d)    all of the above.

24.    The Prime Minister is responsible to the
(a)    Council of Ministers
(b)    President
(c)    Rajya Sabha
(d)    Lok Sabha

25.    Which Article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution?
(a)    370
(b)    368
(c)    390
(d)    376

26.    The first draft of the Constitution was published in
(a)    November, 1947
(b)    January, 1948
(c)    February, 1948
(d)    November, 1948

27.    This used to be a fundamental Right but is now a legal right only.
(a)    Cultural and Educational Rights
(b)    Right to property
(c)    Right against exploitation
(d)    Right to Religious Freedom

28.    In the recent proposed amendment in Cr. P.C. the police may arrest a person.
(a)    after obtaining written orders from Magistrate
(b)    without order of magistrate
(c)    after obtaining orders from Deputy Commissioner
(d)    after giving reasons in writing.

29.    After completion of investigation, the police is to submit a final report to the Magistrate.  The Magistrate.
(a)    is bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and accept the same if the police recommended that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding further.
(b)    is not bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and may order further investigation.
(c)    may issue a process against the accused person(s)
(d)    both (b) & (c)

30.    Addition or alteration of charge has been provided.
(a)    under section 214 of Cr. P.C
(b)    under section 215 of Cr. P.C
(c)    under section 216 of Cr. P.C
(d)    under section 218 of Cr. P.C.

31.    An act which would otherwise be crime may in some cases be excused if the person accused of it shows that all except.
(a)    it was done only in order to avoid consequences
(b)    nothing was done than was reasonably necessary
(c)    the evil inflicted was not disproportionate to the evil avoided
(d)    none of the these.

32.    Cognizance of offence under Section 498A of IPC can be taken by a Court.
(a)    on a police report
(b)    on the complaint of the person aggrieved
(c)    on the complaint of father/mother of the person aggrieved
(d)    all of the above.

33.    During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by

(a)    any police office
(b)    the investigating officer
(c)    both (a) & (b)
(d)    either (a) or (b)

34.    Error or omission in framing of charge
(a)    is material in all circumstances shall vitiate the trial
(b)    is material only if it has occasioned a failure of justice to the accused
(c)    is material and the accused is liable to be acquitted
(d)    both (a) & (c)


35.    In a bailable offence the bail is granted as a matter of right
(a)    by the police officer
(b)    by the court
(c)    both by the police officer & the court
(d)    neither (a) nor (b)

36.    In a summons case, instituted on a complaint, the accused having been summoned is liable to be acquitted under Section 256 of Cr. P.C.
(a)    on account of death of the complainant
(b)    on account of non-appearance of the complainant
(c)    both (a) & (b)
(d)    neither (a) nor (b)

37.    Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per section 468 of Cr. P.C. is
(a)    six months
(b)    one year
(c)    two years
(d)    three years

38.    If the investigation is not completed within 90 days or 60 days as the case may be, and the accused is in custody, on the expiry of said period the accused is entitled to be
(a)    discharged
(b)    released on bail on making an application for release on bail
(c)    released on bail without making an application for release on bail
(d)    acquitted

39.    A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of
(a)    45 days
(b)    15 days
(c)    90 days
(d)    60 days

40.    A decision in a suit may operate as res-judicata against persons not expressly named as parties to the suit by virtue of explanation
(a)    III to Section 11 of CPC
(b)    V to Section 11 of CPC
(c)    VI to Section 11 of CPC
(d)    IV to Section 11 of CPC

41.    A fresh suit on the same cause of action is not barred when
(a)    rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC
(b)    dismissed under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC
(c)    dismissed under Order IX, Rule 3, of CPC
(d)    either (a) or (b) or (c)

42.    A judgment can be reviewed on the ground of
(a)    discovery of new & important evidence not within the knowledge of the party concerned.
(b)    mistake of error of fact or law on the face of the record
(c)    both (a) & (b)
(d)    none of the above.

43.    A person is an indigent person within the meaning of Order 33, Rule 1 of CPC, if he is not possessed of
(a)    sufficient means to pay the fee payable on the plaint
(b)    any means to pay the fee payable on the plaint
(c)    sufficient means for his livelihood
(d)    none of the above.

44.    An ex-parte decree can be set aside on the ground of
(a)    summons not duly served
(b)    being prevented by any sufficient cause from appearance
(c)    only (a) is correct
(d)    both (a) and (b)

45.    Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, orders etc.  can be corrected under
(a)    Section 152 of CPC
(b)    Section 154 of CPC
(c)    Section 155 of CPC
(d)    Section 153 of CPC

46.    On account of mis-joinder or non-joinder of parties under Order 1, Rule 9 of CPC, the suit
(a)    is liable to be dismissed
(b)    cannot be dismissed
(c)    may be dismissed or may not be dismissed as per the discretion of the court
(d)    none of the above.

47.    Order II, Rule 2 of CPC does not apply to
(a)    application for execution
(b)    writ petitions
(c)    both (a) and (b)
(d)    none of the above.

48.    Application for execution of a decree is to be made
(a)    to the court which passed the decree
(b)    to the district court
(c)    to the High Court
(d)    none of the above.

49.    Goods are said to be a 'deliverable state' where
(a)    they are in good condition
(b)    they are in reasonable condition
(c)    they have been delivered on time
(d)    the buyer is bound to take their delivery under contract.

50.    A contract of sale of goods can be
(a)    conditional
(b)    absolute
(c)    temporary
(d)    either (a) or (b)

51.    A disputed handwriting can be proved
(a)    by calling an expert
(b)    by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned documents
(c)    by comparison of the two-admitted and disputed documents
(d)    all of the above.

52.    Who was the first Indian Woman to be crowned Miss universe?
(a)    Rita Faria
(b)    Zeenat Aman
(c)    Sushmita Sen
(d)    Aishwarya Rai

53.    A dying declaration to be admissible
(a)    must be made before a magistrate
(b)    must be made before the police officer
(c)    may be made before a doctor or a private person
(d)    may be made either before a magistrate or a police office or a doctor or a private person

54.    A will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness
(a)    when it is registered
(b)    when it is unregistered
(c)    when it is admitted
(d)    all of the above.

55.    After re-examination of a witness, the adverse party has a
(a)    right to further cross-examine the witness afresh in general
(b)    has no right to further cross-examine the witness
(c)    right to further cross-examine the witness only when a new fact is introduced in the re-examination
(d)    either (a) or (b)

56.    In criminal trial, the onus is on the accused to prove that his case falls in
(a)    any of the general exception
(b)    any of the special exception
(c)    any of the proviso to any provision
(d)    all of the above.

57.    Indian Evidence Act was drafted by
(a)    Lord macaulay
(b)    Sir james F. Stephen
(c)    Huxley
(d)    Sir Henry Summer Maine

58.    Leading questions can be asked during
(a)    examination-in-chief
(b)    cross-examination
(c)    re-examination
(d)    all of the above.

59.    The name of the Union given in the Constitution is
(a)    Hindustan or Bharatavarsha
(b)    India or Hindustan
(c)    India or Bharat
(d)    Bharatadesh or India

60.    Oral evidence is not admissible to clarify the language used in a document when the language is
ambiguous or defective on its face
plain but not applying to the facts
plain but applying to two-sets of facts
related with terms of regional nature

61.    What is the number of Judges (including Chief Justice) in the Supreme Court of India as provided in the Constitution of India?
(a)    20
(b)    24
(c)    31
(d)    28

62.    Presumption under section 112 of the Evidence Act is raised
(a)    when a child is born during the continuance of valid marriage
(b)    when a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried.
(c)    in both (a) & (b)
(d)    neither (a) nor (b)

63.    Secondary evidence of a document means
(a)    copies of that document
(b)    oral account of the contents of the documents
(c)    both (a) & (b)
(d)    neither (a) nor (b)

64.    Muslim marriage is a
(a)    Contract
(b)    Sacrament
(c)    Living together at will
(d)    Both a contract and a sacrament

65.    The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 extends to
(a)    the whole of India except the State of Jammu and kashmir
(b)    Buddhists and Jains
(c)    those who are not Muslims, Christians, Parsis and jews by religion
(d)    all

66.    Under Hindu Law the ground for divorce is
(a)    Insanity
(b)    Cruelty
(c)    Adultery
(d)    All of these

67.    Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(a)    H.R. Bhardwaj
(b)    Kapil Sibal
(c)    Veerappa Moily
(d)    P. Chidambram

68.    The Supreme Court in significant judgment held that the Guru Granth Sahib is
(a)    A juristic person
(b)    The holiest of the holy books
(c)    To be equated with the model
(d)    Not a juristic person

69.    Which of the following soccer players is associated with the term 'Hand of god'
(a)    Pele
(b)    Maradona
(c)    Rooney
(d)    Ronaldo

70.    The Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath conducted by
(a)    Chief Justice of India
(b)    President or Vice-President
(c)    President or some person appointed by him
(d)    None

71.    What is the minimum age required for voting in India?
(a)    16 years
(b)    18 years
(c)    21 years
(d)    25 years

72.    Sarkaria Commission was set up to
(a)    inquiring into Babri Masjid Demolition case
(b)    review the Constitution
(c)    review the Centre-State relations
(d)    to investigate 1984 anti Sikh riots

73.    Standard of proof in
(a)    civil and criminal cases is the same
(b)    criminal case is much more higher than in civil cases
(c)    criminal case is lower than in civil cases
(d)    none of the above.

74.    The doctrine of estoppel is a
substantive law
rule of equity
rule of evidence
law of pleadings.

75.    To an answer to a court question, the adverse party
has a right to cross-examination as a matter of right
has a right to cross-examine only with the permission of the court
has no right to cross-examine the witness
either (a) or (c)

76.    A firm can be held liable for the wrongful act of a partner where the act has been ratified by the act has been ratified by the partners, provided
(a)    the act could be legally done with the authority of all the partners
(b)    the partners ratify the act with full knowledge of the facts
(c)    neither (a) nor (b)
(d)    both (a) and (b)

77.    A partner can retire by notice of his intention to retire, where
(a)    the partnership is at will
(b)    the partnership is for a specified period
(c)    where a contract has been made between the partners for its determination
(d)    none of the above.

78.    A partner has no implied authority
(a)    to enter into a partnership with other persons in another business
(b)    to borrow money in case of a commercial firm
(c)    either (a) or (b)
(d)    neither (a) nor (b)

79.    A partnership firm is required to be registered under
(a)    the Indian Registration Act, 1908
(b)    the Companies Act, 1956
(c)    the Indian partnership Act, 1932
(d)    Indian Contract Act, 1872

80.    An agreement in restraint of trade in a partnership under section 11 of the Indian partnership Act is
(a)    valid
(b)    voidable
(c)    void
(d)    illegal

81.    In a partnership at will
(a)    a partner of a firm can retire from the firm at any time by giving a notice of his intention to retire to his co-partners
(b)    a partner of a firm can dissolve the firm at any time by giving a notice of his internation to dissolve the firm to his co-partners
(c)    either (a) or (b)
(d)    neither (a) nor (b)

82.    X' on receiving grave and sudden provocation from 'Z' internationall' causes the death of 'Y', who is 'Z' brother:
(a)    murder
(b)    grievous hurt
(c)    culpable homicide not amounting to murder  (d) attempt to murder

83.    Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?
(a)    Comments expressing disapproval of the policies of the Government with a view to obtain a change in policies by lawful means
(b)    Proof of disloyalty or ill feelings
(c)    Comments expressing disapproval of the administrative action even though do not excite hatred or disloyalty
(d)    Exciting disaffection towards the government.

84.    'A', a revenue officer, is entrusted with public money and is directed by law to pay into treasury all the public money which the holds.  He instead of paying the same into the treasury dishonestly misappropriates the same buying a sofa set for his personal use.  What offence has 'A' committed?
(a)    Criminal breach of trust
(b)    Dishonest misappropriation of property
(c)    Cheating the Government
(d)    none of the above.

85.    When a criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of a common intention of all, each of such persons is liable:
(a)    for the part of the act done by him
(b)    as if whole act is done by him alone
(c)    for abetting such an offence
(d)    for conspiracy of such an offence.

86.    Which one of the following correctly defines the term unlawful assembly?
(a)    An assembly of five or more persons
(b)    An assembly of five or more persons armed with lethal weapons
(c)    An assembly of five or more persons with common object of doing a crime
(d)    An assembly of two or more persons having some common object of doing a criminal act

87.    Inducing a person with dishonest intention to part with his property by putting him in fear of physical injury amounts to an offence of:
(a)    criminal intimidation
(b)    extortion
(c)    criminal misappropriation
(d)    theft

88.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)    In conspiracy there is no distinction between principal and accessory
(b)    In conspiracy, principle and accessory are distinct
(c)    There has to be a distintion between principal and accessory in all offences
(d)    None of the above is correct

89.    'A' with intention to kill her husband, purchased some poison-powder from a chemist who by mistake, dispensed plain sugar instead.  She put the powder in a cup of tea and served it to her husband who drank it but did not die.  Which one of the following statements is correct as far as the charge to attempt a murder is concerned?
(a)    She is liable because she had committed the penultimate act
(b)    She is liable because her intention to kill her husband is clear from the totality of acts
(c)    She is not liable because administration of sugar is not a step towards the commission of murder
(d)    She is not liable because her husband did not die

90.    The defendant promises to marry the plaintiff on the death of his father.  During the life time of the father, the defendant marries another woman.  The plaintiff in this case:
(a)    has the option of bringing an action for damages immediately or she may wait till the death of father
(b)    can bring an action against the defendant only after the death of the father
(c)    cannot bring any action against the defendant because the contract is discharged by frustration
(d)    can bring an action against the defendant fro breach of contract only if the defendant tells her that he will not marry her

91.    An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other, is a:
(a)    valid contract
(b)    unenforceable contract
(c)    voidable contract
(d)    void agreement

92.    The correct sequence in the formation of a contract is:
(a)    offer,acceptance agreement, consideration
(b)    agreement, consideration, offer, acceptance
(c)    offer, consideration, acceptance, agreements
(d)    offer, acceptance, consideration, agreements.

93.    Which one of the following is a contingent contract?
(a)    'A' insures his factory against damage or destruction by fire
(b)    'A' sells his property subject to the condition that the property will be reconveyed to him on repayment of price with interest 
(c)    A guard is appointed at a swimming pool for the sole purpose of rescuing drowning persons
(d)    A borrower solemnly promises to pay off the lender when the borrower will be in funds

94.    Which one of the following contracts is void?
(a)    'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other.  Before the time fixed for the marriage, 'A' goes mad
(b)    'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other at an early date.  'A' insists on marriage immediately after expiry of one month from the date of the contract
(c)    'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other, but 'A' can fix the date of marriage only after his return from England where he had gone for business
(d)    'A' and 'B' contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, 'A' falls ill and his physician advises 'A' to take rest in bed for one month

95.    An offer is:
(a)    only a declaration of intention
(b)    only a proposal
(c)    an invitation
(d)    a willingness to do or abstain from doing something

96.    The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:
(a)    when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
(b)    when the promisor performs his promise
(c)    when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded
(d)    always at the discretion of the court

97.    A deed of adoption requires:
(a)    compulsory registration
(b)    optional registration
(c)    no registration
(d)    none of the above.

98.    A document relating to land, registered at a place where no part of the property is situated, the registration is:
(a)    void ab initio
(b)    void only if parties in collusion with each other, committed fraud on the registering authority
(c)    voidable and may be set aside within the period of limitations
(d)    either (b) or (c)

99.    Acknowledgement made by a person other than a person under liability is good if:
(a)    the person making it is known to the person under liability
(b)    the person making it is an agent of the person under liability
(c)    the person making it is a servant of the person under liability
(d)    none of the above.

100.    Limitation for filing an appeal commences from:
(a)    the death of judgment
(b)    the date of signing of the decree
(c)    the date of application for copy of the judgment
(d)    none of the above.

101.    The period of limitation for preferring an appeal to the High Court from an order of sentence, other than the sentence of death, is:
(a)    30 days
(b)    90 days
(c)    60 days
(d)    45 days

102.    Section 511, IPC is not related to the offence for which the punishment is:
(a)    Death sentence
(b)    Life-imprisonment
(c)    Imprisonment
(d)    Both (b) and (c)

103.    Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be:
(a)    direct only
(b)    hearsay
(c)    both (a) & (b)
(d)    either (a) or (b)

104.    Give the correct response:
(a)    All murders are culpable homicide but not vice versa
(b)    All culpable homicides are murders
(c)    A murder can never be a culpable homicide
(d)    None of the above.

105.    An adoption of a boy, whose mother, the adopting father could not have legally married, is not recognized by law, but is still considered valid:
(a)    Because of judicial pronouncements
(b)    Because of promulgation of Hindu Adoption and maintenanct Act
(c)    Because of custom
(d)    None of the above

106.    Under Section 13-B of the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, 1949, the tenant is required to seek leave to defend within 15 days of service of notice upon him.  He applies for leave to defend after 20 days:
(a)    Time can be extended by the Rent Controller automatically
(b)    Time can be extended by showing sufficient cause
(c)    Time cannot be extended at all
(d)    None of the above.

107.    Statutory tenant is a person who:
(a)    pays rent as per the rent agreement
(b)    abides by all the provisions of Rent Act
(c)    is the legal representative who occupies premises after death of the original tenant
(d)    None of the above.

108.    On which of the following grounds, a tenant cannot be evicted:
(a)    nuisance
(b)    personal need of the landlord
(c)    building is unfit & unsafe for human habitation
(d)    inadequate rent

109.    In a simple mortgage, possession of the mortgaged property:
(a)    is given to the mortgagee
(b)    is given to a third party as security
(c)    remains with the mortgagor
(d)    None of the above.

110.    In an agreement for transfer of property:
(a)    the transfer is recognized when the agreement is partly performed
(b)    is recognized only when instrument of transfer is executed
(c)    such transfer is not recognized in law at all
(d)    None of the above.

111.    A lease of an immovable property can be:
(a)    for a limited period
(b)    in perpetuity
(c)    can be express or implied
(d)    all of the above.

112.    A valid lease can be determined by:
(a)    efflux of time
(b)    Forfeiture
(c)    on expiration of notice period for determination of such lease
(d)    all of the above.

113.    Pingalwara Trust was founded by:
(a)    Sant Fateh Singh
(b)    Sant Isher Singh
(c)    Bhagat Puran Singh
(d)    Master Tara Singh

114.    City of Amritsar was founded by:
(a)    Guru Ram Dass Ji
(b)    Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji
(c)    Guru Har Rai Ji
(d)    Guru Arjan Dev Ji

115.    Where was the Anglo Sikh Treaty signed between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and the Britishers?
(a)    Lahore
(b)    Amritsar
(c)    Ropar
(d)    Kapurthala

116.    A Muslim woman entitled to obtain a decree for the dissolution of her marriage on the ground that
(a)    the husband was impotent at the time of the marriage
(b)    the husband has become impotent after marriage
(c)    the husband was impotent at the time of the marriage and continues to be so
(d)    none of the above.

117.    Under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be governed by the provisions of Section 125 Cr. P.C. may be given by the parties: 
(a)    jointly
(b)    separately
(c)    either jointly or separately
(d)    none of the above.

118.    For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication
can be self-administered
administered against his will or knowledge
should not be self-administered
none of the above.

119.    For the application of Section 34 IPC there must be at least
(a)    two persons
(b)    more than two person
(c)    five persons
(d)    more than five persons

120.    A retracted confession
(a)    can solely be made the basis of conviction
(b)    cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any circumstances
(c)    cannot be made solely the basis of conviction unless the same is corroborated
(d)    is not admissible in evidence

121.    In which the following, the right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender?
(a)    Rape
(b)    Gratifying unnatural lust
(c)    Causing miscarriage
(d)    Kidnapping

122.    A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of Evidence Act
(a)    must relate to the same crime for which he is charged
(b)    must relate to another crime
(c)    may relate to the same crime or any other crime
(d)    none of the above.

123.    What can be the maximum gap between the two sessions of Parliament?
(a)    Three months
(b)    Four months
(c)    Six months
(d)    Nine months

124.    Which of the following writs literally means you may have the body?
(a)    Habeas Corpus
(b)    Mandamus
(c)    Quo Warranto
(d)    Certiorari

125.    Which of the following Union Territories has a Legislature
(a)    Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b)    Dadra and Nagar haveli
(c)    Pondicherry
(d)    Chandigarh

Answers

1.    (d)
2.    (b)
3.    (c)
4.    (a)
5.    (c)
6.    (c)
7.    (c)
8.    (c)
9.    (a)
10.    (b)
11.    (c)
12.    (a)
13.    (a)
14.    (b)
15.    (b)
16.    (c)
17.    (c)
18.    (c)
19.    (b)
20.    (b)
21.    (d)
22.    (d)
23.    (d)
24.    (d)
25.    (b)
26.    (c)
27.    (b)
28.    (d)
29.    (d)
30.    (c)
31.    (d)
32.    (d)
33.    (b)
34.    (b)
35.    (c)
36.    (c)
37.    (d)
38.    (b)
39.    (c)
40.    (c)
41.    (d)
42.    (b)
43.    (a)
44.    (d)
45.    (a)
46.    (b)
47.    (c)
48.    (a)
49.    (d)
50.    (d)
51.    (d)
52.    (c)
53.    (d)
54.    (d)
55.    (c)
56.    (d)
57.    (b)
58.    (b)
59.    (c)
60.    (a)
61.    (c)
62.    (c)
63.    (c)
64.    (a)
65.    (d)
66.    (d)
67.    (c)
68.    (a)
69.    (b)
70.    (c)
71.    (b)
72.    (c)
73.    (b)
74.    (c)
75.    (b)
76.    (d)
77.    (a)
78.    (a)
79.    (c)
80.    (a)
81.    (c)
82.    (a)
83.    (d)
84.    (a)
85.    (b)
86.    (b)
87.    (b)
88.    (a)
89.    (b)
90.    (a)
91.    (c)
92.    (d)
93.    (a)
94.    (a)
95.    (d)
96.    (c)
97.    (c)
98.    (d)
99.    (b)
100.    (a)
101.    (c)
102.    (a)
103.    (a)
104.    (a)
105.    (a)
106.    (c)
107.    (c)
108.    (d)
109.    (c)
110.    (a)
111.    (d)
112.    (d)
113.    (c)
114.    (a)
115.    (c)
116.    (c)
117.    (c)
118.    (b)
119.    (a)
120.    (c)
121.    (c)
122.    (c)
123.    (c)
124.    (a)
125.    (c)