Punjab (ADJ)-2012

1.    "Coercion" under Indian Law is also known as
(a)    Duress
(b)    Voidable agreement
(c)    Void Agreement
(d)    Both (a) and (b)

2.    A foreign judgment may not be conclusive if it has not been given on the merits of case
(a)    only true in criminal cases
(b)    is a true fact
(c)    only true in matrimonial cases
(d)    not a true statement

3.    A landlord can convert a residential building into a non-resiciential building
(a)    Without the permission of the tenant
(b)    With the permission in writing of the Controller
(c)    With the permission in writing of the tenant
(d)    With the permission of the Registrar

4.    A landlord may apply to Rent Controller for eviction of tenant on the ground
(a)    For his own use
(b)    For use of commercial purpose
(c)    For sale of the rented area
(d)    None of the above

5.    A lets immovable property to B at a yearly rent.  The rent for the whole of the year 1995, 1996 and 1997 is due and unpaid.  The tenancy is terminated before A sues B in 1998 only for the rent due for 1996.  A may afterwards sue B for
(a)    Payment of the whole rent accrued
(b)    Ejectment but not for the rent due for 1995 or 1997
(c)    Ejectment alone after the rent is fully paid
(d)    No cause of action arises against B 

6.    A punishment for vexatious entry, search, seizure or arrest u/s 58 (1) a, b & c by any person empowered u/s 42, 43 or 44 Cr. P.C shall be
(a)    Imprisonment up to one month or fine up to Rs. 500 or both
(b)    Imprisonment up to three months or fine up to Rs. 1000 or both
(c)    Imprisonment up to six months or fine up to Rs. 1000 or both
(d)    Imprisonment up to nine months or fine up to Rs. 2000 or both

7.    A testamentary document is denoted as
(a)    Agreement
(b)    A will
(c)    Contract
(d)    None of the above

8.    A transfer made in violation of Section 22 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is
(a)    Void
(b)    Valid
(c)    Voidable
(d)    IIIegal

9.    Abetment to an offence is not constituted by
(a)    Conspiracy
(b)    Aiding
(c)    Compulsion
(d)    Instigation 

10.    According to Hindu Adoption Laws, which categories of females are permitted to adopt a child
(a)    Unmarried female
(b)    Married Female
(c)    Widow or Divorcee
(d)    All of the above 

11.    Agreement in Restraint of Marriage is a
(a)    Void
(b)    Valid
(c)    Voidable
(d)    Both (a) and (c) 

12.    As per sec. 2 (ix) of NDPS Act, convention and protocol held at which place is included in the meaning of 'International Convention'
(a)    New York
(b)    Geneva
(c)    Vienna
(d)    All above

13.    As per section 21 of The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
(a)    Accused person to be a competent witness
(b)    Accused person is not a competent witness
(c)    Accused person will never be a witness
(d)    None of the above

14.    Cannabis (hemp) means
(a)    Charas and Ganja
(b)    Tobacco
(c)    Coca plant
(d)    All above

15.    Chapter II of The prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is related to
(a)    Appointment of Special Judges
(b)    Offences and Penalties
(c)    Investigation into cases under the Act
(d)    Preliminary Definitions

16.    Chapter V A of NDPS Act on Forfeiture of Property derived from or used in IIIicit traffic contains provisions from
(a)    Sections 68 A – 68 Z
(b)    Sections 65 A – 68 Z
(c)    Sections 68 – 68 A-Z
(d)    Section 68 – 83

17.    Children born out of which type of marriage are legitimate according to Section 16 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(a)    Valid Marriage
(b)    Voidable Marriage
(c)    Void marriage
(d)    All of the above 

18.    'Complaint' means
(a)    A police Report
(b)    an allegation, oral or written to the police
(c)    an allegation, oral or written to a Magistrate
(d)    an allegation of the accused 

19.    Constitutional validity of death sentence was determined by the Supreme Court in
(a)    Kashmir Singh v. State of Punjab
(b)    Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
(c)    Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
(d)    Mithu v. State of Punjab

20.    Contract can be entered between
(a)    Juristic persons
(b)    Natural Person
(c)    Both (a) and (b)
(d)    Neither (a) and (b)

21.    Contract Forbidden by Law are:
(a)    Valid
(b)    Void
(c)    IIIegal
(d)    Both (b) and (c)

22.    Enforcement of order of maintenance is covered under Section ______of Cr. P.C.
(a)    125
(b)    128
(c)    126
(d)    127

23.    Every order passed by the Rent Controller or by the Appellate Authority shall be executed by
(a)    A Civil court
(b)    A Court of magistrate
(c)    A High court
(d)    The office of the Controller

24.    'Former Suit' denotes that:
(i)    a suit which has been decided prior to the suit in question
(ii)    whether or not it was instituted prior thereto
(a)    is a true statement
(b)    (i) is correct only
(c)    (ii) is correct only
(d)    (i) is correct but (ii) is not 

25.    Fundamental duties have been inserted in the constitution by
(a)    The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act
(b)    The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act
(c)    The Constitution (48th Amendment) Act
(d)    None of the above 

26.    Guardianship in Marriage under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 has been abolished with the deletion of which Section of HMA, 1955
(a)    Section 6
(b)    Section 7
(c)    Section 22
(d)    Section 21 

27.    If a landlord files any frivolous or vexatious application for eviction of a tenant under East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, the Rent Controller may direct landlord to pay compensation to tenant not exceeding amount of rupee
(a)    100
(b)    500
(c)    1000
(d)    2000

28.    In which of the following the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that "right to life" does not include "right to die"
(a)    Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996)
(b)    P. rathinam v. Union of India (1994)
(c)    State of Maharashtra v. Maruti Sripati (1987)
(d)    Gokal Nath v. State of Punjab (1967) 

29.    In which schedule of Constitution of India, the three lists are mentioned
(a)    III
(b)    V
(c)    IX
(d)    VII

30.    Murder is defined in the following Section of Indian Penal code
(a)    299
(b)    300
(c)    301
(d)    302

31.    Narcotics commissioner as per section 5 of NDPS Act shall be appointed by
(a)    State Government
(b)    Central government
(c)    Central government in consultation with State Government
(d)    State government in consultation with High Court 

32.    Ordinarily the place of trial of an offence is where
(a)    Accused is apprehended
(b)    Offence is committed
(c)    Victim is residing
(d)    Sanction is given by the Government

33.    Plea bargaining is introduced in the Cr. P.C. through an amendment in
(a)    2005
(b)    2006
(c)    2008
(d)    2009

34.    Privity of Contract is that the
(a)    Parties to the contract can sue each other
(b)    Beneficiary to the contract can sue the parties
(c)    Parties to the contract can sue the third party
(d)    Both (b) and (c) 

35.    Proceedings in Code of Civil Procedure include
(i)    A proceeding for the execution of a decree or order
(ii)    A proceeding for the execution of a decree, order or a prosecution
(a)    (i) is correct
(b)    (ii) is correct
(c)    both are correct
(d)    none of the above 

36.    S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, JT 1994 (2) SC 215 is related to
(a)    National emergency under Article 352
(b)    President rule in state under Article 356
(c)    Financial Emergency under Article 360
(d)    None of the above 

37.    Section 2 (c) of the East Punjab urban Rent Restriction Act defines
(a)    Controller
(b)    Non – residential building
(c)    Landlord
(d)    Residential building 

38.    Section 30 of NDPS Act 1985 provides explanation for
(a)    Punishment for abetment and criminal conspiracy
(b)    Preparation
(c)    Punishment for attempt to commit offences
(d)    Offences by companies 

39.    Section 5 of The prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 provides
(a)    Cases triable by Special Judges
(b)    Power to appoint Special Judges
(c)    Public servant
(d)    Procedure and powers of special judge

40.    Sentence hearing after conviction of an accused is
(a)    Discretion of the Court
(b)    Allowed on request of accused
(c)    Allowed with consent of public prosecution
(d)    Constitutional mandate under Article 21

41.    Sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife is rape if wife is below
(a)    15 years of age
(b)    16 years of age
(c)    18 years of age
(d)    14 years of age

42.    Standard form of contract is also known as
(a)    Contract of adhesion
(b)    Unilateral Contract
(c)    Specific contract
(d)    Both (a) and (b) 

43.    'Suprressio veri' by a woman under HMA, 1955 who was pregnant at the time of marriage is a ground for annulling the marriage as
(a)    Voidable
(b)    Void
(c)    Both (a) and (b)
(d)    Neither (a) nor (b)

44.    The case which relates to the right to fly National flag is
(a)    Union of India v. menaka Gandhi
(b)    Union of India v. Naveen Jindal
(c)    People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
(d)    None of the above 

45.    The constitutional validity of Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for the first time came for consideration in the case of
(a)    Harvinder Kaur v. Harmander Singh
(b)    T. Sareetha v. T. Venkata Subbaiab
(c)    Soroj rani v. Sudarshan Kumar
(d)    Babooram v. Sushila 

46.    The court may compel the attendance of any person to whom summons have been issued under the provisions of Cr. P.C and for that purpose
(a)    issue a warrant, attach and sell his property
(b)    issue a warrant only
(c)    issue a warrant, attach and sell his property and order him to furnish security
(d)    issue a warrant, attach and sell his property and order him to surrender

47.    The date of decree is the date on which
(a)    the date the decree is pronounced
(b)    the date its written
(c)    the day its pronounced but not written or signed
(d)    the day its pronounced and signed by the judge

48.    The East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act 1949 extends to
(a)    All urban areas of Punjab
(b)    All rural areas of Punjab
(c)    All urban areas of Punjab except cantonment area
(d)    All areas of Punjab 

49.    The following is not an essential element of crime
(a)    Mens rea
(b)    Actus reus
(c)    Motive
(d)    None of the above 

50.    The Magistrate records the confession of an accused or a statement of a witness during investigation, under
(a)    Section 164 of Cr. P.C.
(b)    Section 281 of Cr. P.C.
(c)    Section 162 of Cr. P.C.
(d)    Chapter XXIII of Cr. P.C.

51.    The maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea means
(a)    Common intention
(b)    Group liability
(c)    Guilty state of mind in crime
(d)    Wrongful motive

52.    The maximum period for which an accused can be remanded in police custody is
(a)    One Week
(b)    Fifteen Day
(c)    One Months
(d)    Three Months

53.    The maximum punishment for attempt to commit an offen ce under section 15 of the Prevention of Corruption Act is for
(a)    One year
(b)    Two year
(c)    Three year
(d)    Four year

54.    The offence of Criminal misconduct in the PC Act is defined in
(a)    Section 10
(b)    Section 11
(c)    Section 12
(d)    Section 13

55.    The power of entry, search, seizure and arrest without warrant or authorization u/s 41 of NDPs Act is conferred upon
(a)    Any officer including peon, sepoy, or constable of the department of central excise,
(b)    Any officer including peon, sepoy, or constable of the department of narcotics,
(c)    Any officer including peon, sepoy, or constable of the department of customs, revenue intelligence or any other department of central government
(d)    None of the above

56.    The provision of Cr. P.C. 1973 shall apply, in so far as they are not inconsistent with the provision of NDPS Act to
(a)    All warrant issued and arrests
(b)    Searches and seizures
(c)    All warrant issued and arrests, searches and seizures made under NDPS act.
(d)    None of the above

57.    The Schedule attached with the NDPS Act 1985 is in reference to
(a)    Sec. 3 (ii)
(b)    Sec. 2 (xiv)
(c)    Sec. 2 (xxiii)
(d)    None of these

58.    Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956 a 'mother' is not entitled to inherit as class I heir from her
(a)    adopted son
(b)    step son
(c)    illegitimate son
(d)    none of the above 

59.    When a person with intent to cause damage to other person causes destruction of property is said to have committed
(a)    Mischief
(b)    Rioting
(c)    Robbery
(d)    Nuisance 

60.    Which Article of the Constitution provides for reservation in promotion for Scheduled castes and scheduled Tribes
(a)    Article 15 (4)
(b)    Article 16(4)
(c)    Article 16(4-A)
(d)    Article 16 (4-B)

61.    Who is authorized to investigate offence punishable under The prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
(a)    Inspector of Police
(b)    Assistant Commissioner of Police
(c)    Deputy Superintendent of Police
(d)    All above

62.    Whosoever habitually commits an offence under section 8, 9 and 12 the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 shall be punished with imprisonment for a term
(a)    Not less than one year and more than 5 years with fine
(b)    Not less than two years and more than 7 year with fine
(c)    Not less than three year and more than 7 years with fine
(d)    None of the above

63.    Kautilya's Arthasastra is a book on
(a)    economic relations
(b)    principles and practice of statecraft
(c)    foreign policy
(d)    duties of the king

64.    In the third battle of Panipat, the Marathas were defeated by the
(a)    Mughals
(b)    Afghans
(c)    English
(d)    Ruhellas 

65.    The first country to establish trade relations with India was
(a)    Portugal
(b)    Holland
(c)    France
(d)    England 

66.    Rule of law in British Indian meant
(a)    that everybody was equal in the eyes of law
(b)    that British and Indian subjects went to the same courts
(c)    that laws were framed and courts set up
(d)    the guarantee of personal liberty

67.    In which year did Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay write Anandmath?
(a)    1958
(b)    1892
(c)    1882
(d)    none of the above

68.    'Do or die' was one of the most powerful slogans of India's freedom struggle.  Who gave it
(a)    M.K. Gandhi
(b)    J.L. Nehru
(c)    B.G. Tilak
(d)    S.C. Bose 

69.    Which place will experience sunlight for the longest period in summer?
(a)    Mumbai
(b)    Srinagar
(c)    Chennai
(d)    Kolkatta

70.    Which countries lie on either side of the Radcliffe Line?
(a)    India and Bangladesh
(b)    Nepal and India
(c)    North and Sourth Korea
(d)    India and Pakistan

71.    Who prepares the topographical maps of India?
(a)    Geological Survey of India
(b)    Survey of India
(c)    Defence Ministry
(d)    Geographical Survey of India

72.    Which State is the leading producer of thorium
(a)    Kerala
(b)    Bihar
(c)    Orissa
(d)    Madhya Pradesh 

73.    The standard time of a country differs from the GMT in multiples of
(a)    two hours
(b)    one hour
(c)    half hour
(d)     four minutes

74.    January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution because
(a)    it was considered to be an auspicious day
(b)    on that day the Quit Indian Movement was started in 1942
(c)    the Congress had observed it as the independence Day in 1930
(d)    none of the above

75.    In which case the Supreme Court gave a ruling that the Preamble was a part of the Constitution?
(a)    Golak Nath case
(b)    Berubari case
(c)    Keshavananda Bharti case
(d)    all the above cases

76.    'A' was born in New York but his mother had been ordinar-ily living in Indian for not less than five years immediately preceding the Constitution.  Will A be a
(a)    citizen of India
(b)    citizen of USA and India
(c)    neither a citizen of Indian nor of the USA
(d)    none of the above

77.    Which of the following duties have been prescribed for the citizens?
1.    To develop scientific temper
2.    To preserve rich heritage of our composite culture
3.    To organize village panchayats
4.    To minimize inequalities in income
5.    To secure a uniform civil code
6.    To defend the country
(a)    1, 3, 4
(b)    3, 4, 5
(c)    1, 2, 6
(d)    2, 5, 6 

78.    The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued
(a)    By a superior court to the lower court directing it to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for its review
(b)    In the form of an order calling upon a person who has detained another person to bring that person before court and show authority for such detention
(c)    By a superior court to a subordinate court to do something in the nature of its allotted duty
(d)    In the form of an order to stop proceedings in a certain case.

79.    Khap Panchayats includes the following
(a)    Gram Panchayats
(b)    Gram Sabha
(c)    Panchayat Samitis
(d)    Unofficial village councils

80.    The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State list
(a)    if the Rajya Sabha declares by a two-third majority resolution that it is expedient to do so in national interest
(b)    for the implementation of international treaties or agreements
(c)    if two or more states make a request to parliament to do so
(d)    in al the above cases

81.    One of the following subjects is not in the State list
(a)    Police and prisons
(b)    Public health and sanitation
(c)    Markets and fairs
(d)    Bankruptcy and insolvency

82.    Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period?
(a)    Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b)    V.V. Giri
(c)    Giani Zail Singh
(d)    Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma 

83.    Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced in the India judicial system?
(a)    M. Hidayatullah
(b)    A.M. Ahmadi
(c)    A.S. Anand
(d)    P.N. Bhagwati

84.    One of the following does not match:
(a)    Hindu Marriage Act: 1955
(b)    Medical Termination of pregnancy Act: 1971
(c)    Domestic Violence to Women Act: 1990
(d)    Right to Information Act 2005

85.    The following official does not form part of the municipalities
(a)    mayor
(b)    municipal councilor
(c)    chairman
(d)    chief executive officer 

86.    The post of Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha was
(a)    Created by the Constitution
(b)    Created through an Act of parliament in 1977
(c)    Created through an ordinance of the president during the national emergency
(d)    Created in 1981 with the consent of leaders of all the national parties.

87.    The 2012 BRICS Summit was held in
(a)    Sanya
(b)    Moscow
(c)    New Delhi
(d)    Durban

88.    Latin phrase for saying that delegated legislation is "beyond." Its powers is
(a)    Ultra vires
(b)    Ex-parte
(c)    Ejusdem generis
(d)    None of the above

89.    'Reddendo singular singulis' means
(a)    refers only to the last
(b)    the general does not detract from the specific
(c)    a word is known by the company it keeps
(d)    None of the above

90.    'Obiter-dicta' is
(a)    binding
(b)    not binding
(c)    discretion of the courts
(d)    none of the above

91.    Taxing Statutes should be
(a)    Liberally construed
(b)    Strictly construed
(c)    Purposively construed
(d)    None of the above 

92.    Which is the form of a delegated legislation?
(a)    Rule and Order
(b)    Directions and Schemes
(c)    Bye-Laws
(d)    All of the above

93.    Rule of Literal Interpretation means
(a)    Only grammatical meaning should be assigned
(b)    Only dictionary meaning be assigned
(c)    Only natural or popular meaning should be assigned
(d)    All of the above

94.    Specific Relief can be granted
(a)    for enforcing individual civil rights
(b)    for enforcing penal laws
(c)    both (a) and (b)
(d)    none of the above

95.    Specific Relief Act applies to
(a)    Only Immovable Property
(b)    Only Moveable property
(c)    Both moveable and immovable property
(d)    None of the above 

96.    The liability of a person in possession, not as owner, to deliver to persons entitled to immediate possession arises
(a)    when the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent of trustee of the plaintiff
(b)    when it is extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage caused by its loss
(c)    when compensation in money is not an adequate relief
(d)    all of the above

97.    A suit for possession of an Immovable Property under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act can be filed within
(a)    6 months of dispossession
(b)    One year of dispossession
(c)    Two years of dispossession
(d)    Three years of dispossession

98.    Relief of rescission is granted in cases
(a)    where the contract is void
(b)    where the contract is voidable
(c)    both void and voidable contracts
(d)    neither void nor voidable contracts

99.    The grant or refusal of relief of declaration and injunction under the provisions of Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act is
(a)    discretionary
(b)    mandatory
(c)    prohibitory
(d)    none of the above

100.    Perpetual injunction can be granted under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act
(a)     when compensation affords adequate remedy
(b)    when there exists standard for ascertaining the actual damages caused
(c)    when it is necessary to prevent multiplicity of proceedings
(d)    when the defendant is not a trustee of property for the plaintiffs

101.    Legal character or right under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, must be
(a)    specific
(b)    abstract
(c)    contingent
(d)    any of the above

102.    The Limitation Act, 1963 contains
(a)    32 Sections and 151 Articles
(b)    31 Sections and 137 Articles
(c)    33 Sections and 137 Articles
(d)    31 Sections and no Articles 

103.    The minimum period of limitation prescribed in the Limitation Act is
(a)    One month
(b)    30 days
(c)    10 days
(d)    15 days

104.    The operation of Limitation Act, 1963 is
(a)    Prospective only
(b)    Retrospective only
(c)    Both prospective and retrospective
(d)    None of the above 

105.    Limitation Act, 1963 applies to
(a)    Suits, appeals and applications
(b)    only suits
(c)    only suits and appeals
(d)    none of the above 

106.    Bill of Exchange includes
(a)    Only hundi
(b)    Only cash, hundi and cheque
(c)    Only hundi and cheque
(d)    None of the above

107.    Any claim by way of a set off or a counter claim shall be treated as
(a)    a separate suit
(b)    the same suit
(c)    may be separate or same suit
(d)    None of the above

108.    Legal disability means
(a)    Minority and Idiocy
(b)    Insanity and idiocy
(c)    Idiocy and Minority
(d)    Minority, Insanity and Idiocy

109.    While computing the period of limitation, the day from which such period is to be reckoned
(a)    shall be included
(b)    shall be excluded
(c)    may be included or excluded
(d)    none of the above

110.    X took leave to sue as a pauper on the last day of limitation period i.e. on 1.1.2000.  Court did not grant such permission and asked him to pay the court fee within one week
(a)    His suit will commence on 1.1.2000
(b)    His suit will commence on 8.1.2000
(c)    His suit would be rejected
(d)    None of the above 

111.    Which is correct
(a)    Limitation bars the judicial remedy
(b)    Limitation extinguishes the right
(c)    Limitation is a substantive law
(d)    Limitation bars the extra judicial remedies 

112.    Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct is covered under Section _______of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(a)    8
(b)    9
(c)    10
(d)    11

113.    Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise, when irrelevant in criminal proceeding is covered by
(a)    Section 24 of Evidence Act
(b)    Section 26 of Evidence Act
(c)    Section 21 of Evidence Act
(d)    Section 28 of Evidence Act

114.    Evidence may not be given of
(a)    Any fact
(b)    Facts in Issue
(c)    Relevant Fact
(d)    Both (a) and (b)

115.    A confessional statement made by a co-accused may be admissible against the other accused
(a)    if the offence is committed jointly
(b)    have committed same offence
(c)    are being jointly tried for the same offence
(d)    Are being jointly tried

116.    Burden of proving the existence of exceptions is put on accused by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under Section
(a)    102
(b)    103
(c)    105
(d)    106

117.    The conduct of an eye witness is non-disclosing the incident to anybody for a number of days is highly unnatural one and is sufficient to reject his testimony is
(a)    is not relevant
(b)    a ground of rejection of testimony of eye witness
(c)    is not a ground of rejection of testimony
(d)    none of the above

118.    Which of the following is an immovable property
(a)    Standing timber
(b)    Growing crops
(c)    Grass
(d)    Tree bearing fruits

119.    Under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, the following does not amount to notice
(a)    Registration where the instrument in compulsorily registrable
(b)    Registration where the instrument is not compulsorily registrable
(c)    Notice to Agent
(d)    Possession

120.    'Actionable claim' means
(a)    a claim to unsecured debt
(b)    a claim to beneficial interest in movable property not in possession of claimant
(c)    both (a) and (b)
(d)    only (a)

121.    Under Section 5 of T.P. Act 'living person' include
(a)    Individual human being only
(b)    Company only
(c)    Company or association or body of individuals
(d)    none of the above 

122.    The doctrine of part performance cannot defeat the right of a
(a)    Transferee for value
(b)    Gratuitous transferee
(c)    Transferee for value if he has notice of the contract or of his part performance
(d)    Transferee for value and without notice of the previous contract or of its part performance 

123.    The section providing for documents of which registration is optional under the Registration Act is
(a)    Section 18
(b)    Section 19
(c)    Section 17
(d)    Section 20

124.    Gift in lieu of dower is
(a)    Compulsorily registrable
(b)    Optionally registrable
(c)    Not compulsorily registrable
(d)    Both (b) & (c) 

125.    The time for presenting documents for registration before the proper officer as provided by Section 23 of the Registration Act, 1908 is
(a)    2 months from the date of execution
(b)    4 months from the date of execution
(c)    6 months from the date of execution
(d)    3 months from the date of execution


Answers

1.    A
2.    B
3.    B
4.    A
5.    B
6.    Deleted
7.    B
8.    C
9.    C
10.    D
11.    A
12.    D
13.    A
14.    A
15.    A
16.    A
17.    D
18.    C
19.    C
20.    C
21.    D
22.    B
23.    A
24.    A
25.    A
26.    A
27.    A
28.    A
29.    D
30.    B
31.    B
32.    B
33.    B
34.    A
35.    A
36.    B
37.    C
38.    B
39.    D
40.    D
41.    A
42.    D
43.    A
44.    B
45.    B
46.    A
47.    D
48.    C
49.    C
50.    A
51.    C
52.    B
53.    C
54.    D
55.    D
56.    C
57.    C
58.    B
59.    A
60.    C
61.    D
62.    D
63.    B
64.    B
65.    A
66.    C
67.    C
68.    A
69.    B
70.    D
71.    B
72.    A
73.    C
74.    C
75.    C
76.    A
77.    C
78.    B
79.    D
80.    D
81.    D
82.    C
83.    D
84.    C
85.    A
86.    B
87.    C
88.    A
89.    B
90.    B
91.    B
92.    D
93.    D
94.    A
95.    C
96.    Deleted
97.    A
98.    B
99.    A
100.    C
101.    A
102.    B
103.    C
104.    C
105.    A
106.    C
107.    A
108.    D
109.    B
110.    A
111.    A
112.    A
113.    A
114.    Deleted
115.    C
116.    C
117.    B
118.    D
119.    B
120.    C
121.    C
122.    D
123.    A
124.    A
125.    B