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M.P.-2011 (ADJ)
HIGH COURT OF M.P. JABALPUR
HJS (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION, 2011
PART – A
LAW LEXICON AND MAXIMS
1. Lex tallienis denotes -
(A) the law of the place (B) the law of the forum
(C) unwritten law (D) the law of retaliation
2. Uberrima fides means
(A) in good faith
(B) in bad faith
(C) faith is to believe what you do not see
(D) of the fullest confidence
3. En ventre sa mere is a person in being for the purpose of
(A) punishment of abortion
(B) acquisition of property
(C) creation of partnership
(D) claiming compensation in Torts
4. Actio personalis moritur cum persona connotes
(A) a personal right of action dies with the person
(B) care for the entire person
(C) an action directed toward a particular person
(D) an action is not given to him who is not injured
5. Sic Utere tuo ut alienum non laedas means
(A) an act of the Court shall prejudice no one
(B) suppressing the truth suggesting the flase
(C) make such use of your property as not to injure your neighbours.
(D) the laws give help to those who are watchful
ENGLISH
From among the given options, choose a word that is closest in meaning to the capitalized word.
6. CHICANERY
(A) sump (B) malfeasance
(C) retribution (D) delude
7. GREGARIOUS
(A) throng (B) potent
(C) disperse (D) splenetic
Complete the following sentences by selecting an appropriate word from the given choices.
8. Through mediation, we turn our mind ……and establish contact with the creative centre,
(A) leeward (B) outward
(C) homeward (D) untoward
9. The writer is constrained to raise some fundamental questions about the ……of evil and their victims, questions to which he receives so satisfying answers.
(A) scapegoats (B) perpetrators
(C) survivors (D) politico
10. A writer must not be too ….. to criticism.
(A) sensual (B) sensational
(C) sensitive (D) different
11. The more man seeks to ……….. nature, the more he destroys himself.
(A) augment (B) control
(C) monitor (D) surround
Each of the following questions has a pair of capitalized words followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the word pair, which exhibits a relationship similar to that in the capitalized pair.
12. ASCERTAINMENT : CONCLUSION
(A) Inference : Suggestion (B) Perusal : Knowledge
(C) Adulteration : Invention (D) Succor : decision
13. DISMAY : PHOBIA
(A) Antidote : Poison (B) Glance : Perusal
(C) Exercise : Therapy (D) Anger : Conciliation
A set of sentences are given below which when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct the paragraph.
14. (A) However, the social objectives of the economy cannot be under-estimated in macro-level decisions.
(B) The development plans of constructions of dams, irrigation and power projects involve heavy expenditure.
(C) For such heavy investments, a careful analysis of feasible alternatives provides a sound base for the selection of the best.
(D) In a nutshell, it can be said that a rational business manager can make use of the opportunity cost principle.
(A) BCAD (B) CABD
(C) DACB (D) CDAB
15. (A) The position of the Company Secretary has thus been made statutory by the Companies (Amendment) Act of 1975.
(B) Also know as the "principal officer" of the company, the Company Secretary is responsible for compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act.
(C) In Corporate lexicon, secretarial functions signify a mind-boggling array of highly specialized tasks performed by the Company Secretary.
(D) These include a host of statutory functions that the Companies Act require him to perform.
(A) ADBC (B) CBDA
(C) DABC (D) BCDA
BASICS OF COMPUTER
16. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
(A) hackers (B) spam
(C) viruses (D) identity theft
17. A (n) --------------- system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item's s tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
(A) PSS (B) POS
(C) inventory (D) data mining
18. ------------- is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
(A) A process (B) Software
(C) Storage (D) Information
19. Computers use the ----------language to process data.
(A) processing (B) kilobyte
(C) binary (D) representational
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
(A) megabyte (B) byte
(C) kilobyte (D) gigabyte
INDIAN PENAL CODE , 1860
21. Which of the following provisions is based on the maxim "Dominis non curat lex"
(A) Section 80 (B) Section 84
(C) Section 95 (D) Section 87
22. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the List :
List I List II
(A) Instigation to commit an offence 1. Criminal conspiracy
(B) Agreement to commit an offence 2. Necessity
(C) Grave & sudden provocation 3. Abetment
(D) Act done without criminal 4. Culpable homicide not amounting
intention to prevent other harm to murder
5. Attempt
23. Match List I (Case) with List II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(A) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra 1. Criminal conspiracy
(B) Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab. 2. Dacoity
(C) Barindra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor. 3.Murder
(D) Shyam Behari v. State of U.P. 4.Grave and sudden Provocation
5. Unsoundness of mind
A B C D A B C D
(A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 1 2 5 3
(C) 4 2 1 3 (D) 1 3 5 2
24. If a police officer commits rape in the premises of any police station, he can be punished ---
(A) Under Section 376(1) (B) under Section 376 (2) (a)
(C) Under Section 376 (2) (b) (D) Under Section 376 (2) (c)
25. Under Section 43 of the I.P.C, the word "illegal"is not applicable to everything -
(A) which is an ofvfence
(B) which is prohibited by law
(C) causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person
(D) which furnishes ground for a civil action
26. It embodies what the English authors describe as the doctrine of transferred malice.
(A) Section 301 (B) Section 34
(C) Section 149 (D) Section 304A
CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1973
27. "To say that photo identification is hit by Section 162 is wrong", it has been held by the Supreme Court in -
(A) Manu Sharma v. State
(B) Myladimmal Surendran v. State of Kerala
(C) Musheer Khan v. State of M.P
(D) Vijay v. State of M.P.
28. Section 173 (1A) mandates that an investigation into offence of rape with a child shall be completed within ----days from the date of recorded information
(A) 30 days (B) 60 days
(C) 90 days (D) 120 days
29. In which of the following cases, it has been laid down by the Supreme Court that where the versions in the complaint case and the police report are totally different and contradictory, such cases should be tried separately -
(A) Harjinder Singh v. State of Punjab
(B) Pal @ palla v. State of U.P.
(C) Suresh Chand Jain v. State of M.P
(D) Dilawar Singh v. State of Delhi
30. in summons case, where the Court has dispensed with the personal attendance of the accused, the Court at the time of examination of accused, can
(A) examine the advocate of the accused.
(B) examine the accused after defence evidence.
(C) examine the other accused on behalf of the absent accused.
(D) dispense with his examination.
31. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the judgments, relating to Section 438and delivered in -
(1) Salauddin Abdulsamad Shaikh v. State of Maharashtra
(2) Siddharam Satllingappa Mhetre v. State of Maharashtra
(3) Sunita Devi v. State of Bihar
(4) Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
32. A Magistrate, under Section 159, can direct the police..
(A) to hold investigation (B) to drop the proceedings
(C) to stop investigation (D) to file charge-sheet
INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT 1872
33. Statement made in anticipation of death by a person who survives, to a police officer, would be
(A) admissible under S.32 (B) admissible under S. 157
(C) inadmissible (D) admissible under S. 144
34. The principle that statement of facts contained in a newspaper is merely hearsay has recently been reiterated by the Supreme Court in -
(A) Laxmi Raj Shetty v. State of T.N
(B) Joseph M. Puthussery v, T.S. John
(C) Quamarul Ismam v. S.K. Kanta
(D) Baburao Bagaji Karemore v. Govind
35. Immedialey before dying, signs and gestures made by a victim, whose throat was cut by the accused, in answer to questions, indicating the person who had wounded him, are admissible under Section -
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 32 (D) 33
36. An extrajudicial confession made by an accused to the Kotwar is admissible in evidence was laid down by a Full Bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in --
(A) State of M.P. v. Ramcharan
(B) State of M.P.v. Chhotekhan
(C) State of M.P.v. Premlal
(D) Anni alias Ramesh v. State of M.P.
37. This presumption that a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by computer is contained in -
(A) Sec.65-A
(B) Sec.65-B(2)
(C) Sec.65-B (5) (c)
(D) Sec 67-A
38. The decision of probate Court is
(A) a judgment in rem (B) a judgment in personam
(C) conclusive proof (D) foreign judgment
39. Which of the following properties has not been recognized by Courts as immovable property?
(A) Right of way
(B) Right to collect rent of immovable property
(C) A right of worship
(D) Right to fishery.
40. In the absence of contract or local laws or usage, a lease of immovable property for manufacturing purposes shall be deemed to be -
(A) a lease for year to year
(B) a lease for month to month
(C) a lease for a minimum term of 2 years.
(D) a lease for a minimum term of 3 years.
41. The right of redemption can be exercised by :
(A) Paying the mortgage money to the mortgagee outside the court
(B) Depositing the amount due on the mortgage in the court
(C) Regular suit for redemption
(D) Any one of the above ways
42. Principle laid down by the Privy Council as to the constructive notice of the real title as provided in Section 41 was re-affirmed by the Supreme Court in -
(A) Syed Abdul Khader v. Rami Reddy
(B) Chunchun Jha v. Ebadat Ali
(C) Jumma Masjid, Mercara v. Kodimaniandra Deviah
(D) Ram Baran Prasad v. Ram Mohit Hazra
43. Which Section embodies 'Doctrine of Cy-pres'-
(A) Section 25 (B)Section 26
(C)Section 27 (D) Section 28
44. A gives a lakh of rupees to B, reserving to himself with B's assent, the right to take back at pleasure Rs. 10,000/-out of lakh. The gift:
(A )is wholly void (B) is invalid
(C) hold good as to Rs.90,000/- (D) is oneout
CIVIL PROCEDURE CODE, 1908
45. 'Issue relating to jurisdiction can be tried as a preliminary issue only when it can be decided without recording any evidence'. This principle was laid down by a Full Bench of the M.P. High Court in -
(A) Ramdayal v. M/s. Pannalal
(B) Subhash Chand V. Chairman
(C) Nathu Prasad v. Singhai Kapur Chand
(D) Budhulal v. Chhotelal
46. 'Legal Representative' as defined in Section 2(11) of C.P.C. does not include -
(A) nature heir
(B) legatee who obtains only a part of the estate of the deceased
(C) done of the suit property
(D) person who is neither a legal heir nor an intermeddler with the estate of the deceased
47. Which rule of Order XXXIX of the Code provides that an injunction directed to the Corporation is binding not only on the Corporation but also on all members and officers of the Corporation whose personal action it seeks to restrain -
(A) Rule 3 (B) Rule 3-A
(C) Rule 4 (D) Rule 5
48. Which one of following conditions must be satisfied in order to apply the rule of res judicata as between co-defendants?
(A) There should not be conflict of interest between the defendants
(B) They must be co-defendants in more than one suit
(C) The question between the defendants must have been finally decided
(D) The question between the defendants must not have been finally decided
49. Which of the following kinds of property is not liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree ?
(A) Money (B) Shares
(C) Land (D) Personal ornaments, which cannot be parted with by any woman
50. In execution of decree, other than a decree for maintenance, passed against A, what shall be the attachable portion, if his salary is Rs. 7000/- per month ?
(A) Rs. 3000/- (B) Rs. 2000/-
(C) Rs. 3500/- (D) Rs.1000/-
INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872
51. The Defence of "Non est factum" is available to the contracting party who has committed mistake as to the -
(A) nature of contract
(B) identity of the other contracting party
(C) quality of the promise made by the other contracting party
(D) quality of the subject matter of the contract.
52. A takes an insurance policy on his life making a false statement about his health and does not disclose the fact that he has been treated for a serious illness. In this case, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The contract is void
(B) The contract is unenforceable
(C) Contract is voidable
(D) The contract is unlawful
53. What is the remedy available for breach of contract in a case where a person enjoys the benefit of non-gratuitous act although there exists no express agreement between the parties?
(A) Suit for damages
(B) Suit for injunction
(C) Suit upon 'quantum meruit'
(D) Suit for specific performance
54. A knows that his horse had a damaged hoof which he filled up in such a way as to defy defect and sold it to B. This defect was subsequently discovered by B. The act of A will amount to -
(A) a false suggestion
(B) active concealment of fact
(C) misrepresentation
(D) mistake
55. A, without the request of anybody, extinguishes the fire of B's Godown. A suffers injury thereby. If B promises to compensate A for the whole amount he has spent for his treatment, then the contract is-
(A) unenforceable because it is immoral
(B) void for want of consideration
(C) voidable
(D) enforceable
56. Which of the following is a leading case on the point of communication of offer-
(A) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(B) Belfour v. Belfour
(C) Taylor v. Portington
(D) Lalman Shukla vs. Gauri Dutt
SPECIFIC RELIEF ACT, 1963
57. In which of the following cases, performance of the contract would be specifically enforced by the Court ?
(A) A contract to marry
(B) A contract to give money on loan
(C) A contract to refer a dispute to arbitration
(D) A contract to sell a painting by a well-known dead painter.
58. When mandatory injunction can not be issued -
(A) when the injury can be compensated by damages
(B) when the balance of convenience is in favour of the defendant
(C) where the obstruction is permanent in nature
(D) where there is a legal obligation on the part of the defendant to perform some positive act.
59. If any person is disxpossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise then in due course of law, he may institute suit to recover possession notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit within -
(A) One year from the date of dispossession
(B) Twelve years from the date of dispossession
(C) Six months from the date of dispossession
(D) Three years from the date of dispossession
60. In which of the following cases would rescission of a contract be adjudged by the Court?
(A) where the plaintiff has ratified the contract
(B) the third parties to the contract have acquired the rights in good faith
(C) where the contract is voidable by the plaintiff
(D) where the part of the contract sought to be rescinded is not severable from the rest of the contrat
61. A, B and C are coparceners. A is in separate possession of joint family property. He sells it to D and puts D in possession. B and C sue for declaration of title that the property is joint family property. The Court-
(A) will issue a declaration that property is joint family property.
(B) will direct the plaintiff to implead 'A' as a party before granting decree for declaration.
(C) will dismiss the suit as plaintiffs are in a position to claim consequential relief of possession.
(D) None of the above
NARCOTIC DRUGS AND PSYCHOTROPIC SUBSTANCES ACT, 1985
62. Whether the quantity or percentage of neutral substance in a mixture can be taken into consideration to determine small or commercial quantity of the narcotic drug :
(A) Yes, if it is inseparable
(B) No
(C) Answer would depend on the fact that the accused is a carrier or a kingpin
(D) Yes, if it is separable
63. Whether the bar under Section 37 of the Act would not be applicable to a case where the person applying for grant of bail is an accused for an offence punishable under
(A) S. 19 (B) S.24 of the Act
(C) S.27A (D) S. 20 (b) (ii)(B)
64. In which of the following cases, it has been held by the Supreme Court that non-compliance with the provision of Section 42 may not vitiate the trial if no prejudice is caused to the accused -
(A) State of Punjab v. Balbir Singh
(B) State of H.P. v. Pawan Kumar
(C) Karnail Singh v. State of Haryana
(D) Prabha Shankar Dubey v. State of M.P
65. Section 50 of the Act can be invoked only in a case where -
(A) narcotic drug is recovered as a consequence of body search of the accused
(B) narcotic drug is recovered from container being carried by individual
(C) narcotic drug is recovered from the house of the accused
(D) narcotic drug recovered is kept by the accused in his Almirah
LIMITATION ACT, 1963
66. Period of limitation for possession of immovable property or any interest therein based on title is -
(A) 20 Years (B) 30 years
(C) 12 Years (D) 3 years
67. The following would not be excluded while computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application as per Section 12 of the Act.
(A) the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced
(B) the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree or order appealed from or sought to be revised or reviewed
(C) the day from which such period of limitation is to be reckoned
(D) the day on which the suit or appeal or application is to be presented
68. Which Section is based on the principle of lex non cogit ad impossibilia -
(A) Section 4 (B) Section 5
(C) Section 14 (D) Section 15
NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS ACT, 1881
69. What is the term used to describe an instrument, which is not discharged even by non-presentation of the instrument to the acceptor for payment ?
(A) Cheque (B) Bill of exchange
(C) Accommodation (D) Bill in sets
70. What is the exception to the general rule that 'a forged indorsement is no indorsement in law'?
(A) Closing of account
(B) Protection to the paying banker
(C) Assignment of the negotiable instrument
(D) Crossing of cheque
71. The principle that a payee can successively present a dishonoured cheque during the period of its validity has been laid down in-
(A) Prem Chand Vijay Kumar v. Yashpal Singh
(B) K. Bhaskaran v. Sankaran Vaidhyan Balan
(C) Goa Plast Ltd. V. Chico Ursula D' Souza
(D) I.C.D.S. Ltd. V. Beena Shabeer
M.P. LAND REVENUE CODE, 1959
72. Under Section 2 of the Code, "Family" includes:
(A) Husband or wife and children
(B) Husband or wife, children and parents
(C) Husband or wife, children, parents and brother-sister
(D) Husband or wife, minor children and parents
73. Which of the following Section of the Code exempts uneconomic holdings from land revenue?
(A) Section 56 (B) Section 55
(B) Section 58-A (c) Section 57
74. An usufructuary mortgage made by a Bhoomiswami will not be valid if it is for a period more than :
(A) 5 years (B) 6 years
(C) 10 years (D) 7 years
75. Who will decide the disputes relating to demarcation and maintenance of boundary lines?
(A) Tahsildar (B) Sub-Divisional Officer
(C) Collector (D) Commissioner
76. Under which section of the Code, provision relating to devolution of rights of occupancy tenants is provided:
(A) S. 190 (B) S. 191
(C) S. 192 (D) S. 193
77. Under Section 250-A of the Code, on failure to restore possession a person may be confined in civil prison for a maximum period of:
(A) 2 months (B) 1 months
(C) 3 months (D) 30 days
78. Which section of the Code provides the provision relating to presumption of correctness of entries in land records -
(A) S. 116 (B) S. 117
(C) S. 110 (D) S. 118
M.P. ACCOMODATION CONTROL ACT, 1961
79. How many months rent can be taken as advance rent by the landlord from the tenant:
(A) one month (B) two months
(C) Three months (D) six months
80. Under Section 8 of the Act, how much amount could be increased in the standard rent:
(A) 10% of standard rent (B) 8 % of standard rent
(C) 15% of standard rent (D) 25% of standard rent
81. First Appeal against the order passed under S. 10 of the Act lies to:
(A) District Judge (B) Civil Judge Class I
(C) High Court (D) Revenue Board
82. A landlord cannot evict a person under which of the following grounds ?
(A) If the person has opened an office in one part of the rented house
(B) If the landlord is also staying in the house alongwith the tenant and the tenant is creating nuisance
(C) If the tenant is of harsh nature due to which it becomes impossible for the other people to live peacefully
(D) Grown garden by putting soil on the terrace
83. According to Section 12 (1) (a) of the Act which statement is not true ?
(A) if a tenant pays the rent through money order and the landlord refuses it, then it will deemed that the tenant was not at fault.
(B) Under this section tenant is liable to pay only arrears of rent of three years
(C) It is the responsibility of the tenant to pay rent at the residence of landlord
(D) Rent paid to any third person would be treated as legally paid
84. If a tenant knowingly gives a false statement in the application under Section 25 of the Act, then the Rent Control Officer can impose a fine amount ?
(A) Equal to two months' rent
(B) Equal to one month's rent
(C) upto Rs. 100/-
(D) upto Rs. 500/-
85. Under Section 20 of the Act, Public Institute, Corporation or local authority may file suit for ejectment befor which authority ?
(A) Rent Control Authority (B) Court
(C) Tribunal constituted u/s 20 (D) Collector
MEDICO LEGAL JURISPRUDENCE
86. Diatom test is conducted to ascertain whether death occurred due to -
(A) Drowning (B) Hanging
(C) Burning (D) Shock
87. DNA fingerprinting is useful to determine-
(A) Cause of death
(B) Identity of an individual
(C) Time of death
(D) None of the above
88. The Supreme Court has held that narco Test is violative of Article …….. of the Constitution -
(A) 14 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 21
89. The early signs of death are : -
(A) Cadaveric changes in the muscles
(B) Putrefaction or decomposition
(C) Mummification
(D) Cooling of the body
90. Motile spermatozoa can be found after intercourse:-
(A) Up to 24 hours (B) Upto 72 hours
(C) Upto 100 hours (D) Upto 60 hours
JUVENILE JUSTICE (CARE AND PROTECTION) ACT, 2000
91. In the event of difference of opinion among the Members of the Board in the interim or final disposition.
(A) The opinion of the majority shall prevail
(B) The opinion of the Principle Magistrate shall prevail
(C) The opinion of woman Member shall prevail
(D) None of the above proposition is correct
92. The bail of the juvenile may be denied only when
(A) Release is likely to bring him into association with any known criminal or expose him to any moral danger or that release would defeat ends of justice
(B) if juvenile is accused of murder
(C) if juvenile is accused of rape with murder
(D) If juvenile is accused of Dacoity
93. The order refusing bail to a juvenile can be challenged : -
(A) In revision before Court of Session
(B) in appeal before Court of Session
(C) In appeal before High Court
(D) In revision before High Court
EASEMENTS ACT, 1882
94. Which one is not necessary ingredient of easement ?
(A) Dominant and servient heritage
(B) Beneficial enjoyment of the dominant tenement
(C) Right only to do something over immovable property of servient owner
(D) Right to do or to prevent something over immovable property of servient owner
95. Which one statement is correct:
(A) An easement cannot be revoked at the will of dominant owner
(B) A licence is not transferable in any circumstance
(C) A licence is always bound to be of positive nature
(D) A servient owner enjoys right of easement
96. In which circumstances, licence is not deemed to be revoked : -
(A) When the grantor ceases to have any interest in the property
(B) When the licensee releases it to the grantor or his legal representative
(C) When the grantor dies
(D) Where it has been granted for a limited period and that period has expired
M.P. EXCISE ACT, 1951
97. Which provision of the Act envisages that if a person accused of possession of liquor or any article used for manufacturing of liquor, fails to furnish satisfactory account of such possession, will be presumed guilty of an offence punishable under Ss. 34, 35 and 36 as the case may be -
(A) Section 43 (B) Section 44
(C) Section 45 (D) Section 46
98. The constitutional validity of Section 47A to 47D and proviso to Section 47C has been upheld by the Division Bench of M.P. High Court in : -
(A) Shrish Agarwal v. State of M.P
(B) Rajendra v. State of M. P
(C) Lallu Singh v. State of M.P.
(D) Gwalior Aswani Ltd. V. Excise Commissioner
WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972
99. Hunting of wild animals specified in schedule I, II, III & IV is prohibited except as provided in-
(A) Section 11 and 12 (B) Section 9
(C) Section 6 (D) Section 40A
100. The principle that "provisions of S. 39 (1) (d) and S.50 of Act do not affect Magistrate' s power under Section 451 of Cr.P.C to direct release of vehicle during pendency of trial" was laid down by Supreme Court in -
(A) State of Jharkhand v. Govind Singh
(B) State of West Bengal. V. Sujit kumar Rana
(C) State of M.P. v Madhukar Rao
(D) State of Bihar v. kedar Sao
PART B
CONSTITUTION OF INDIAN
101. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has held that Results obtained through the involuntary administration of polygraph examination and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test violates Article 20 (3) of constitution ?
(A) Manorama Masurekar v. Dhanlaxmi G. Shah
(B) Selvi & Ors. V. State of Karnataka
(C) P.V. Mudaliar v. Dy. Collector
(D) State of Madras v. D. Namasivaya Mudaliar
102. On which of the following grounds may the writ of certiorari be issued ?
(A) when the inferior tribunal has the jurisdiction to decide the matter but the finding is erroneous not being an error apparent on the face of the record.
(B) when the inferior tribunal acts in contravention of the rules of natural justice.
(C) when the cause of action arises out of a contract not involving the violation of any statutory or constitutional provision.
(D) if the act done by the inferior body/authority is an executive or ministerial act.
103. The doctrine of eclipse applies to :
(A) only to pre – constitutional laws.
(B) to post-constitutional laws but only in respect of non-citizens.
(C) to post – constitutional laws but only in respect of citizens.
(D) to all laws – pre-constitutional as well as post-constitutional.
104. Which provision of the Constitution of India confers pardoning power on the Governor of a State ?
(A) Article 171 (B) Article 151
(C) Article 161 (D) Article 163
105. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble to the Constitution is a part of its basic structure ?
(A) kartar Singh v. State of Punjab
(B) S.R. Bommai v. Union of Indian
(C) Indra Sahney v. Union of Indian
(D) Lakshmi Kant Pandey v. Union of India
106. The clause (3) to Article 352 of the Constitution requiring the President to issue a proclamation of emergency only after the decision of the Union Cabinet has been communicated to him in writing was inserted by which constitutional amendment ?
(A) 44th Amendment, 1978 (B) 73rd Amendment, 1992
(C) 70 th Amendment, 1991 (D) 42nd Amendment, 1976
107. The Parliament for the Union Consists of the following organs -
(A) President, House of the People and Council of States
(B) House of the people and Council of States.
(C) Prime Minister, House of the people and Council of States
(D) Speaker, House of the People and Council of states
108. In which of the following cases, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India has held that "Whenever a person complains and claims that there is a violation of any provision of law or a Constitutional provision, it does not automatically involve breach of fundamental right for the enforcement of which alone Article 32 of the Constitution is attracted ".
(A) Ramdas Athawale v. union of India
(B) Mulamchand v. State of M.P
(C) K.P. Choundary v. State of M.P
(D) State of Kerala v. K.M. Cheria Abdulla
HINDU MARRIAGE ACT, 1953
109. Lachman utam Chand Kriplani v. Meena is the leading decision of the Supreme Court on the ground of -
(A) Cruelty (B) Desertion
(C) Insanity (D) Adultery
110. A marriage solemnized between two hindus would not be regarded as voidable under Section 12 of the Act if :-
(A) the marriage has not been consummated owing to the impotence of the respondent
(B) the respondent was at the time of the marriage pregnant by some person other than the petitioner.
(C) either party was incapable of giving a valid consent to the marriage due to unsoundness of mind
(D) the parties are sapindas of each other
111. A petition under this Act cannot be presented to the district court within the local limits of whose ordinary original civil jurisdiction, where
(A) the marriage was solemnized,
(B) the respondent, at the time of the presentation of the petition, resides
(C) the parties to the marriage did not last reside together
(D) the petitioner-wife is residing at the time of the presentation of the petition
HINDU SUCCESSION ACT, 1956
112. A Hindu widow A inherits property from her mother. A dies intestate leaving behing her brother and her husband's father and mother. The property shall devolve upon -
(A) her husband's father
(B) her brother
(C) Her husband's mother
(D) all of them in equal shares
113. When a Hindu inherits the property from his father under Section 18 of the Act, he takes it as -
(A) Joint family property
(B) co-owner
(C) his separate property
(D) tenants in common
114. "V. Tulasamma v. V. Sesha Reddi" is the leading decision of the Supreme Court on the provisions of Section …….. of the Act.
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 14 (D) 15
115. A Hindu dies intestate, leaving two sons, three daughters, two widows, three grand-daughters by a predeceased son. Calculate the share of the grand-daughters.
(A) 1/7 each (B) 1/14 each
(C) 1/21 each (D) 1/28 each
HINDU ADOPTIONS AND MAINTENANCE ACT, 1956
116. Following have the right to maintenance under the Act.
(A) Wife, widowed daughter in law, legitimate child
(B) Wife, widowed daughter in law, legitimate or illegitimate child
(C) Wife, widowed daughter in law, legitimate child, infirm parents
(D) Wife, widowed daughter in law, legitimate or illegitimate child and infirm parents.
117. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has upheld validity of adoption of boy of more than 15 years of age as per prevailing custom under Section 10(iv) of the Act -
(A) Munna lal v. Raj Kumar
(B) P. Ammal v. Ramalingam
(C) Kondiba Rama Papal v. Narayan Kondiba Papal
(D) Dhanraj v. Suraj Bai.
PREVENTION OF CORRUPTION ACT, 1988
118. Investigation of an offence under Section 13 (1) (e) of the Act cannot be made without the order of such Police Officer, who is not below the rank of:
(A) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(B) Inspector
(C) Superintendent of Police
(D) Deputy inspector General of Police
119. if any public servant commits criminal misconduct, then he will be liable to be punished with such term -
(A) which shall be not less than 6 months but may extend to 5 years and fine
(B) which shall be not less than 1 year but may extend to 7 years and fine
(C) which shall be not less than 3 years but may extend to 7 years and fine
(D) which shall be not less than 5 years but may extend to 14 years and fine
120. In which of the following cases, it was laid down by the Supreme Court that no order staying trial of public servant for corruption charges can be passed by the High Court even when it exercises inherent jurisdiction under Section 482 of CrPC -
(A) Lallu Prasad v. State through C.B.I.
(B) State of Haryana v. Bhajanlal
(C) Parkash Singh Badal v. State of Punjab
(D) Satya narayan Sharma v. State of Rajasthan
THE ELECTRICITY ACT, 2003
121. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in respect of powers of Special Courts constituted under Electricity Act, 2003 -
(A) Special Court may review any of its judgment.
(B) Special Court may review order passed u/s 154 of the Act.
(C) Special Court may take cognizance of an offence punishable under this Act upon a report of a police officer filed u/s 173 of CrPC.
(D) Special Court may take cognizance of an offence punishable under the Act only upon a complaint in writing made by the competent authority/person.
122. offences triable by Special Court constituted under the Act are
(A) Ss 126 to 146 and S. 150
(B) Ss. 135 to 150
(C) Ss. 135 to 140 and S. 150
(D) Ss. 135 to 142 and S. 150
123. An appeal can be filed against the order of State Regulatory Commission before:
(A) Central Regulatory Commission (B) Central Authority
(C) Appellate Tribunal (D) Supreme Court only
SCHEDULED CASTES AND SCHEDULED TRIBES (PREVENTION OF ATROCITIES)
ACT,1989
124. Which Court has jurisdiction to take cognizance of an offence punishable under the Act ?
(A) Court of Judicial Magistrate Second Class
(B) Session Court
(C) Special Court
(D) Court of Judicial Magistrate First Class
125. Regarding imposition of collective fine, which of the following statement is incorrect /
(A) This fine shall be imposed under Section 10A of Protection of Civil Rights Act.
(B) This fine shall not be imposed under Section 357 of Cr. P.C.
(C) To recover fine and for other related matters provisions of Cr. P.C. will apply
(D) This fine could be imposed by the State Government or Executive magistrate authorized by it
126. Under Section 10 of the Act, the power of externment is conferred on
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate (B) District Magistrate
(C) Sessions Judge (D) Special Court
MOTOR VEHICLES ACT, 1988
127. In determination of just compensation in death case, what is deductible -
(A) the amount paid by the LIC
(B) the amount paid by employer as Gratuity and Leave Encashment
(C) the amount paid as ex-gratia
(D) the amount which would be spent by the deceased, if he were alive
128. Whether the amount of compensation payable under S.140 of the Act in respect of permanent disablement may be reduced on the ground of :
(A) total or partial negligence of the injured person
(B) composite negligence of the drivers of two vehicles
(C) no fault of the driver of the vehicle to cause the injury
(D) in none of these conditions
129. Guidelines for disbursement of compensation under the Act were laid down by the Supreme Court in -
(A) General manger, Kerala State Road Transport Corporation, Trivandrum v . Susamma Thomas
(B) Prerna v. M.P. State Road Transport Corporation
(C) New India Assurance Co. Ltd. V. kamla
(D) National Insurance Co. Ltd v. Swaran Singh
INDIAN SUCCESSION ACT, 1925
130. A District Judge may extend the Succession Certificate under which Section of the Act -
(A) 372 (B) 376
(C) 377 (D) 378
131. Ram, being a prisoner by lawful authority, makes his Will. The Will would be -
(A) Void (B) Voidable
(C) Valid (D) Illegal
132. Who can exempt any race, sect or tribe in the state from certain provisions of the Act -
(A) Central Government (B) State Government
(C) High Court (D) Supreme Court
GENERAL CLAUSES ACT, 1897
133. Under which of the following provisions of the Act, the service of a document by registered post can b e deemed to have been effected -
(A) Section 24 (B) Section 25
(C) Section 27 (D) Section 29
134. Which of the following is a "Juristic person"
(A) Slave (B) unregistered club of individuals
(C) Idol revered in home (D) temple without idol
THE PUBLIC GAMBLING ACT, 1867
135. Who is entitled to seize any register, record or writing of any kind whatsoever which contains digits of figures, or signs or symbols or pictures relating to worli or matka gaming -
(A) Police officer not below the rank of Assistant Superintendent of Police.
(B) Police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
(C) Head Constable
(D) Any Police officer
136. If any person found in 'common gaming house' upon being arrested gives his false name and address to the arresting police officer, he may be liable :
(A) To pay any penalty not exceeding five hundred rupees, together with such costs as to such magistrate shall appear reasonable or in the first instance, if to such Magistrate it shall deem fit, may be imprisoned for any period not exceeding one month
(B) To pay penalty not exceeding five hundred rupees.
(C) To imprisonment for any period not exceeding one month
(D) To imprisonment for any period not exceeding one month and also fine not exceeding five hundred rupees.
LAW OF TORTS
137. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the Code given below the lists :
I. Rylands v. Flectcher A. Compensation for pain & suffering
II. Donoghue v. Stevenson B. Loss caused by competition in business
III. Gloucester v. Grammer School C. Strict liability
IV. Rose v. Ford D. Liability of minor for torts
(A) I-A II-B III-C IV-D
(B) I-B II-C III-D IV-E
(C) I-C II-E III-B IV-A
(D) I-C II-D III-B IV-A
138. Which of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defences available in an action for defamation ?
(A) Privilege, truth, fair comment
(B) Privilege, mistake, fair comment
(C) Truth, mistake, fair comment
(D) Truth, privilege, mistake
COURT FEES ACT, 1870
139. "The question of court-fees must be considered in the light of the allegations made in the plaint only". This principle was laid down by Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in -
(A) Pandurang Dhondi Chougule v. Maruti hari jadhav
(B) Sathappa Chettiar v. Ramanathan Chettiar
(C) Singareni Collieries Co. Ltd. V. Commissioner of Commercial Taxes, Hyderabad
(D) South India Corporation (P) Ltd. V. Secretary, Board of Revenue, Trivandrum
140. In which of the following cases, a Full Bench of M.P. High Court has determined the question as to whether ad valorem Court-fee is required to be paid when the plaintiff alleges that document in question is forged-
(A) Sunil Radhelia and others v. Awadh Narayan
(B) Rajkumar v. M/s Kinilic Gallery
(C) Ambika Prasad v. Shriram Shiromani
(D) Raj Kumar Jain v. Savitri Devi
THE REGISTRATION ACT, 1908
141. A copy of decree or Order may be presented for registration within:
(A) Four months from the day on which the decree or Order was made.
(B) Thirty days from the day on which the decree or Order was made.
(C) Ninety days from the day on which the decree or Order was made.
(D) Three months from the day on which the decree or Order was made.
142. Which document is not compulsorily registrable :
(A) Instrument of gift of Immovable Property
(B) Non-testamentary instrument which acknowledges the receipt or payment of any consideration on account of the creation, declaration, assignment, limitation or extinction of any such right, title or interest.
(C) Instruments acknowledging the receipt or payment of any consideration on account of the creation, declaration, assignment, limitation or extinction of any such right, title or interest.
(D) Leases of immovable property from year to year or for any term exceeding one year or reserving a yearly rent
THE INDIAN STAMP ACT, 1899
143. If party does not pay the duty and the penalty after the order of the court, then the Court-
(A) in case of the plaintiff the suit shall be rejected and in case of the defendant the defence shall be struck off.
(B) will try the suit but the duty and the penalty shall be included in the decree and shall be recovered accordingly
(C) the instrument shall be sent to the collector stamp for necessary action.
(D) the proceeding of the suit shall remain stayed till the order of the collector stamp.
144. A document which is required to be duly stamped and registered but not duly stamped and registered :
(A) Shall not be admitted in evidence for any purpose
(B) May be received as evidence of any collateral transaction not required to be affected by registered instrument.
(C) Shall be admitted in evidence for any purpose
(D) Shall be admitted in evidence for all purposes after payment of proper stamp duty and penalty under Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
145. Which of the following is incorrect /
(A) 10 Lakhs = 1 million (B) 1 crore = 10 million
(C) 100 crores = 1 billion (D) 1000 crores = 1 billion
146. In india, every year, 'Law Day' is observed on ?
(A) 26 January (B) 10 December
(C) 26 May (D) 26 November
147. Kerala High Court has its seat at -
(A) Cochin (B) Ernakulam
(C) Thiruvananthapuram (D) Kottayam
148. Who is the chairman of Law Commission of India -
(A) Justice P Venkata Reddy
(B) Justice V.S. Malimath
(C) Dr. Justice AR. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice M. Jagannatha Rao
149. Name author of the Book "My own boswel"
(A) M. Hidayatullah (B) Nelson Mandela
(C) M.C. Chagla (D) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
150. In which district of Madhya Pradesh, national fossils park is situated -
(A) Mandla (B) Dindori
(C) Anuppur (D) Umaria