Haryana (2012) (Executive)

1.    Theory of "social engineering" was propounded by:
A.    Salmond         B.  Roscoe Pound         C.  Hart         D.  None of the above
2.    "Doctrine of pleasure" was introduced in Constitution of India in:
A.    Article 309         B.  Article 299             C.  Article 310     D.  None of the above
3.    The term "law in force' in clause (3) of Art 13 of constitution of India means:
A.    Only statutory law                     B.  Customs and usages only
C.     Both 'A' and 'B'                     D.  None of the above
4.    In India a Bill to change the boundaries of a State has to be passed by a ……………….majority in …………………to become a law.
A.    Simple; parliament                     B.  Simple; state legislature
C.     Two third; parliament                     D.  None of the above
5.    An idol of Lord Krishna in a temple is:
A.    Legal person
B.    Natural person
C.    Not a person because no personality can be attributed to God
D.    None of the above
6.    Force majeure refers to:
A.    Forced labour                         B.  An inevitable event
C.     Democracy                         D.  None of the above 
7.    Right of private defense u/s 97 of IPC extends to:
A.    Private defense of self property and body
B.    Private defense of any other person's body and property
C.    Private defense of body of himself and any other person and private defence of property himself and any other person
D.    None of the above
8.    A right which has a co-relative duty can be legally enforced is called:
A.    A perfect right                         B.  A remedial right
C.     A contractual right                     D.  None of the above
9.    In the modern Society, the best course of law is:
A.    Precedent         B.  Customs         C.  Legislation         D.  None of the above
10.    Under the Evidence Act, fact means:
A.    factum probandum                     B.  factum probans
C.     Both 'A' and 'B'                     D.  None of the above
11.    Standard of proof in:
A.    Civil and criminal cases is the same
B.    Criminal case is lower than in civil cases
C.    Criminal case is much higher than in civil cases
D.    None of the above
12.    Relevancy is:
A.    Question of law and can be raised at any time
B.    Question of law but can be raised at the first opportunity
C.    Question of law that can never be raised
D.    None of the above
13.    Under section 45 of Evidence Act the opinion of expent can be on the question of:
A.    Indian law                     B.  Foreign law
C.     Both A and B                     D.  None of the above
14.    Which one of the following is NOT the objective of the United Nations?
A.    Establishment of democratic governments throughout the world
B.    Promotion of better standards of life
C.    Maintenance of international peace and security
D.    None of the above 
15.    In which one of the following cases did the International Court of Justice refrain from giving its final judgment?
A.    Right of Passage case                 B.  Nuclear Test case
C.     Corfu Channel case                 D.  None of the above
16.    Salmond divided the sources of law into:
A.    Primary and Secondary                 B.  Formal and Material
C.     Direct and Indirect                 D.  None of the above
17.    Which legal tradition argues that internal societful sources are the basis of Internatioanl Law?
A.    Theological         B.  Positivist         C.  Naturalist         D.  None of the above
18.    Which of the following would not be permited to submit a case before the International Court of Justice?
A.    The Government of India             B.  Amnesty Intenational
C.     The UN Security Council             D.  None of the above
19.    All of the following have added to the expansion of International Law except:
A.    Expanding consequences and victims of war     B.  Spread of nationalation
C.     Growing awarencess of human rights issues    D.  None of the above
20.    The Evidence Act, 1872 contains _____________sections.
A.    511         B.  495        C.  167        D.  None of the above
21.    Which section of the Indian Evidence Act is associated with dowry death?
A.    Section 113A                     B.  Section 113B
C.     Section 114A                     D.  None of the above 
22.    Which constitutional article lays down distrulation of work through the Union List, State List and Concurrent List between the Union and the State?
A.    Article 248                     B.  Article 246
C.     article 247                     D.  None of the above
23.    After which report, President promulgates president Rule in the State?
A.    Governor's report                 B.  Union Home Minister's report
C.     Prime Minister's report             D.  None of the above
24.    As per the provisions of Section 57 of IPC, while calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for how manv years?
A.    15        B.  20        C.  25        D.  None of the above
25.    A soldier fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer in conformity with the command of law.  The soldier has committed:
A.    Offence within Section 76 of IPC         B.  No offence within Section 76 of IPC
C.     No offence within Section 80 of IPC         D.  None of the above
26.    Competition Act replaced:
A.    Consumer Protection Act
B.    Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act
C.    Right to Information Act
D.    None of the above
27.    Each member of parliament is individually responsible to:
A.    Speaker of house                 B.  Prime Minister of India
C.     President of India                 D.  None of the above
28.    Preamble to the Indian Constitution was first time amended by the:
A.    42nd amendment                 B.  1st amendment
C.     73rd  amendment                 D.  None of the above
29.    Right to education is a fundamental right.  This is provided under:
A.    Article 20A                     B.  Article 21A
C.     Article 22B                     D.  None of the above
30.    Rahul by putting Rohan in fear of grevious hurt, dishonestly induces Rohan to sign a blank cheque and deliver it to him.  Rohan signs the cheque and delivers it to Rahul.  Rahul is guilty of:
A.    Robbery         B.  Extortion         C.  Theft         D.  None of the above
31.    Under Section 171E of the IPC where a public servant is given bribe in the form of treat by way of food, drinks, provision and entertainment will be punished with:
A.    Imprisonment of one year only             B.  Fine only
C.     Both imprisonment and fine             D.  None of the above
32.    A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists B to hide the body with the intention of screening B from punishment.  A is liable to imprisonment of either description for ……………..and fine also:
A.    Life                         B.  Seven years
C.     Three years                     D.  None of the above    
33.    A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court under:
A.    Article 32                     B.  Article 136
C.    Article 226                     D.  None of the above
34.    Cruelty to a woman by husband or relative of husband is defined under:
A.    Section 488 A of the Indian Penal Code
B.    Section 489 A of the Indian Penal Code
C.    Section 498 A of the India Penal Code
D.    None of the above  
35.    The Court of Magistrate of the First Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term:
A.    Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 10,000
B.    Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
C.    Not exceeding seven years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
D.    None of the above
36.    Which of the following protects personal freedom:
A.    Quo-warranto                     B.  Habuas Corpous
C.     Mandamus                     D.  None of the above
37.    An Agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is a:
A.    Valid Contract                     B.  Voidable Augreencourt
C.     Void Contract                     D.  None of the above
38.    Insurance is a:
A.    Contract of Indemnity                 B.  Contingent Contract
C.     Wagering Contract                 D.  None of the above
39.    A person himself does not commit an offence, he helps or aids another person, be is guilty:
A.    Abetment         B.  Incitement         C.  Conspiracy         D.  None of the above
40.    Indian Evidence Act was drafted by:
A.    Sir James Stephen                 B.  Huxley
C.     Motilal Nehru                     D.  None of the above
41.    Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act are:
A.    Synonymous                     B.  Co-extenive
C.     Neither synonymous nor co-extensive         D.  None of the above
42.    Consider the following statements:
Parliament may make law on a subject enumerated in state list only if the
I.    President deems it proper that such law is necessary for all the stated in India
II.    Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
III.    Lok Sabha passed a resolution 2/3rd inajority of list total membership
IV.    Governor of the state request the President for such legislation
Of the above statements, which is correct?
A.    I and IV are correct                 B.  Only II is correct
C.     Only III is correct                 D.  None of the above
43.    Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused:
A.    Under section 29 of Evidence Act         B.  Under section 30 of Evidence Act
C.     Under section 31 of Evidence Act         D.  None of the above
44.    After exhaustion of all remedies before the Supreme court, "curative petition" is maintainable as held in:
A.    A.R. Antulay's case                 B.  Fodder Scam Case
C.     Ashok Hurra's case                D.  None of the above
45.    Supreme court held in the case of ………………….that air waves and frequencies were public property and their use must be regulated by public authority:
A.    Nira Radia case
B.    Secretary, Ministry of I&B vs. Cricket Association of Bengal case
C.    Amar singh's case
D.    None of the above
46.    'A' administers poisonous drug to a woman 'B' to cause miscarriage.  It is found that 'B' was not pregnant.  In this case:
A.    A is not guilty of offence of attempt to cause miscarriage
B.    A is guilty of murder
C.    A is guilty of offence of attempt to cause miscarriage
D.    None of the above 
47.    Tort of negligence means:
A.    Doing an act with intention to cause harm to other
B.    Doing an act failing to take reasonable care which a prudent man would take in similar situation
C.    Doing act without mental alertness
D.    None of the above 
48.    'A' enters Z's house through a window.  'A' has committed crime of:
A.    House breaking     B.  House trespass     C.  trespass         D.  None of the above
49.    "A" promises for no consideration to give to "B" Rs. 1000 agreement is:
A.    Voidable         B.  Valid         C.  Void         D.  None of the above
50.    Responsibility of finder of goods is a type of:
A.    Novation         B.  Void contract     C.  Quasi contract     D.  None of the above
51.    A witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence in writing in the open court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be:
A.    Oral evidence                     B.  Documentary evidence
C.     Primary evidence                 D.  None of the above
52.    An order of life imprisonment may be passed by:
A.    Chief Judicial Magistrate             B.  Sessions Judge
C.     Metropolitan Judge                 D.  None of the above
53.    Amendment of which one of the following provisions of the Constitution requires ratification by the Legislatures of the States:
A.    Article 157 relating to the qualifications for appointment as Governor of the State
B.    Article 54 relating to the election of the President
C.    Article 56 relating to the term of the office of the President
D.    None of the above
54.    Which of the following statements is attributable to Salmond?
A.    Jurisprudence is formal science of positive law
B.    Jurisprudence is science of the first principle of civil law
C.    Jurisprudence is lawyer's perspective
D.    None of the above
55.    The international treaty becomes binding on India when:
A.    Prime Minister signs the treaty
B.    President signs the treaty
C.    Parliament makes special legislation for accepting the treaty
D.    None of the above
56.    The International Law consists of:
A.    Private international law only             B.  Public international law and domestic law
C.    Public and private international law        D.  None of the above
57.    The decision of the General Assembly of UNO have no legally binding effect for the Governments because there is no provision for:
A.    Moral authority community prevails         B.  International enflucing authority
C.    World opinion is insufficient             D.  None of the above
58.    The "Right to Information" is a:
A.    Constitutional Right                 B.  Legal Right
C.     Fundamental Right                 D.  None of the above
59.    To betray a nation is an offence and punishable with death in India, that is:
A.    Treachery         B.  Sedation         C.  Treason         D.  None of the above
60.    "Refugees" are dealt with which of the following UN agency?
A.    UNCTAD         B.  UNHCR         C.  UNICEF         D.  None of the above
61.    Uniform Civil code is envisaged in Article ………………of the Constitution of India.
A.    44            B.  42            C.  39            D.  None of the above
62.    ………………..is the principle of non-intervention of the Government in economic affairs of the country.
A.     Liberalization                     B.  Loiurez-fnize
C.     Giffins Caveat                     D.  None of the above
63.    Rio declaration relates to:
A.    UN Women Convention
B.    WTO
C.    International legal framework for biodiversity and sustainable development
D.    None of the above
64.    A money Bill in Parliament of India must be returned by the Rajya Sabha with its recommendations to the Lok Sabha within a period not exceeding:
A.    90 days         B.  14 days         C.  60 days         D.  None of the above
65.    An invitation to tender is:
A.    Offer                         B.  Contract
C.   Not an offer but an invitation to offer         D.  None of the above
66.    …………………..is an act which is perfectly legal, but can be rescind.
A.    Voidable3         B.  Void         C.  Vis Major         D.  None of the above
67.    Six persons assemble on the Platform of Mumbai Railway Station and started fighting with each other.  The passengers present at railway Station got annoyed and felt disturbed.  The public reported the matter to the police.  The six persons are guilty of:
A.    Unlawful assembly                 B.  Affray
C.     Rioting                     D.  None of the above
68.    Death:
A.    Terminates the rights of a legal person.
B.    Does not terminate the rights of a legal person.
C.    Creates new rights for deceased
D.    None of the above
69.    Who has defined ownership as a right of "plenary control over an object"?
A.    Holland         B.  Hart         C.  Salmond         D.  None of the above
70.    Who holds the view that "The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty"?
A.    Salmond         B.  Duguit         C.  Bentham         D.  None of the above
71.    The concept of Directive principles of State Policy was borrowed from:
A.    Ireland             B.  England         C.  Finland         D.  None of the above
72.    Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression to:
A.    All citizens of India                 B.  All citizens and foreigners
C.    To all persons above 18 years of age         D.  None of the above
73.    Raylands v/s Fletcher propounds the principles of:
A.    Defamation         B.  Strict liability     C.  Nuisance         D.  None of the above
74.    Volenti not fit injuria implies:
A.    No one should suffer injury voluntarily
B.    The harm voluntarily suffered does not constitute legal injury
C.    The harm voluntarily suffered constitutes legal injury
D.    None of the above
75.    Who wrote 'Anarchy State and Uthopia'?
A.    Salmond         B.  Nozick         C.  Hart         D.  None of the above
76.    House of lords decision Boulton v/s Stone is known for:
A.    Liquidated damages                 B.  Negligence
C.     Breach of duty standards of a reasonable man     D.  None of the above
77.    Vindictive Damages have been awarded:
A.    for a breach of promise to marry
B.    For wrongful dishonor of a cheque by a banker possessing adequate funds of the customer
C.    Both A and B
D.    None of the above
78.    A person enjoying the benefits of a lawful non –gratuitous act of another:
A.    Is not liable to compensate that another
B.    Is liable to compensate that another
C.    Has to perform the same non –gratuitous act in return
D.    None of the above
79.    The basis of 'quasi contractual' relations is:
A.    Prevention of unjust enrichment at the expense of others
B.    Existence of a voidable contract between the parties
C.    Existence of a valid contract between the parties
D.    None of the above
80.    When time is not the essence of contract, then the remedy for not performing the correct on time is:
A.    Can rescind the contract             B.  To claim compensation
C.     No remedy available                 D.  None of the above
81.    A boy is employed for one year on a monthly salary of Rs. 1800, the whole salary to be paid at the end of the year.  The boy wrongfully leaves the service after six months.  Before entitled to any salary?
A.    He is entitled to the salary of six months     B.  He is not entitled to anjoriny
C.     He is entitled to the whole salary         D.  None of the above
82.    An agreement entered into with free consent & lawful but inadequate considetment:
A.    Void         B.  Voidable         C.  Valid         D.  None of the above
83.    A owes Rs. 10,000 to B under a contract it is agreed between A,B & C that B shall henceforth accept C as his Debtor instead of A for the same amount.  Old debt discharged and a new debt from C to B is contracted.  This is:
A.    Rescission of contract                 B.  Novation of contract
C.    Alteration of contract                 D.  None of the above
84.    A Minor's agreement is void.  this was held in the case of:
A.    Nihal Chand Vs. Jan Mohamod Khan         B.  Chinniya Vs. Ramiyn
C.     Mohiri Bibi Vs. Dharmadas Ghosh         D.  None of the above
85.    When a contract is divisible, and one party has enjoyed the benefit of part performance, then, the other party may sue on quantum merit, it is:
A.    True         B.  Partly true             C.  False         D.  None of the above
86.    When two or more persons have made a joint promise, then, unless a contrary intention appears from the contract, all such persons must fulfill the promise:
A.    Jointly and severally                 B.  Jointly or severally
C.    Need not perform                 D.  None of the above
87.    Which among the following is otherwise called world court?
A.    UNO         B.  ICJ        C.  WTO     D.  None of the above
88.    What happens in India, if a High Court judgment is issued in State's local language?
A.    The judgment is not recognized
B.    A translation in England must be made available
C.    It can not be appealed to the Supreme Court
D.    None of the above
89.    According to which amendment to India constitution, the total number of Ministers, including Prime Minister, in the council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of People?
A.    29TH         b.  89TH        C.  91ST             D.  None of the above
90.    A master's liability for wrongs committed by the servant is knows as:
A.    Concurrent liability                 B.  Joint liability
C.     Vicarious liability                 D.  None of the above
91.    For the trial of a criminal case in India the evidence is to be taken:
A.    In presence of family members of accused in the court
B.    In presence of accused in the court
C.    In presence of accused or when his personal attendance is dispensed with in presence of his advocate
D.    None of the above
92.    Which of the following is not a function of Parliament of India?
A.    Formulating policy for national development
B.    Criticizing government policy
C.    Providing the cabinet and holding them responsible
D.    None of the above
93.    Justice Sikri held in the case of ………………….."  Preamble Of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution should 'be read and interpreted in the light of the grand 'and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.":
A.    AK Gopalan V/s State of Madras         B.  Keshvanand Bharti v/s State of Kerala
C.     In Re:  Beru Bari union                 D.  None of the above
94.    A member of the state Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehavior only after an inquiry has been held by:
A.    Governor of that State                     B.  President of India
C.     Supreme Court of India                 D.  None of the above
95.    The rules for regulating the practice and procedure of the Supreme Court under Article 145 of the Constitution are made by the:
A.    President of India
B.    Supreme with the approval of the President of India
C.    Supreme Court alone
D.    None of the above
96.    The Supreme Court has ruled that a person belonging to an non-reserved class, transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any other voluntary act to a family belonging to reserved c does not become eligible to the benefit of reservation either under Article 15(4) or 16(4) of the constitution in:
A.    Indra Swahney v/s UoI
B.    Kumara Madhuri Patel v/s Addl. Comman of Tribal Development
C.    Kasekar v/s Vishwanath Pandu Barde
D.    None of the above
97.    The Article of the Constitution which cutonvatically becomes suspended exprodetiven of emergency is:
A.    Article 14         B.  Article 19         C.  Article 21        D.  None of the above
98.    "Right to Life" does not include "right to die".  It has been held in a case of:
A.    Smt Gian kaur v/s state of Punjab             B.  State V/s Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
C.    Vishaka v/s State of Rajasthan                 D.  None of the above
99.    The nature of 'consultation' with the Chief Justice of India in matter of appointure of a judge to a High Court is correctly described as:
A.    Conformity with the opinion of the Chief Justice
B.    Concurrence of the Chief Justice
C.    Formal reference to the CJI without obligation to carry out his widver
D.    None of the above
100.    The court fee taken by the High Court in India comes under:
A.    Union list    B.  State list        C.  Concurrent list         D.  None of the above